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A client with sepsis has a temperature of 40°C. Which dysrhythmia is most likely to occur in this client?
- A. Bradydysrhythmia
- B. Tachydysrhythmia
- C. Wolff-Parkinson-White dysrhythmia
- D. Long QT dysrhythmia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with sepsis and a temperature of 40°C is likely experiencing a systemic inflammatory response, which can lead to a variety of dysrhythmias. In this case, the client is more likely to develop a tachydysrhythmia (fast heart rate) due to the body's response to the infection. Sepsis can result in an increase in heart rate as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs in response to the inflammatory process. Tachydysrhythmias such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation are commonly observed in septic patients with high fevers.
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A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
A patient has been vomiting for 4 hours. Which hormone will increase secretion in response to the physiologic changes caused by the vomiting?
- A. ADH
- B. Renin
- C. Thyroxin
- D. Aldosterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes. In response to these physiologic changes caused by vomiting, aldosterone secretion will increase. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase reabsorption of sodium and water, helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance. By increasing aldosterone secretion, the body aims to retain more sodium and water to counteract the effects of vomiting and prevent dehydration.
The nurse is providing care to a client who has experienced several episodes of angina. Which agent does the nurse anticipate being ordered to reduce the intensity and frequency of an angina episode?
- A. The client will experience relief of chest pain with therapeutic lifestyle changes.
- B. The client will experience relief of chest pain with statin therapy.
- C. The client will experience relief of chest pain with nitrate therapy.
- D. The client will experience relief of chest pain with anticoagulant therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitrates are commonly prescribed for the management of angina. These agents work by dilating blood vessels, which leads to improved blood flow to the heart muscle and decreased workload on the heart. This results in reduced intensity and frequency of angina episodes by increasing oxygen supply to the heart and decreasing its demand. Nitrates can be administered sublingually, orally, or topically to provide prompt relief of chest pain during an angina episode. Thorough patient education should be provided regarding the proper use of nitrates and potential side effects.
The nurse is assessing a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which finding would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg
- B. Pulse of 92 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 per minute
- D. Weight gain of 16 oz per week
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg in a client in the third trimester of pregnancy is elevated and could indicate the development of preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder that can have adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure accompanied by signs of organ damage, such as proteinuria and changes in other laboratory values. Immediate intervention is required in this situation, as preeclampsia can lead to complications such as seizures (eclampsia), stroke, and placental abruption. It is essential for the nurse to further assess the client and notify the healthcare provider promptly for appropriate management.
What is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis?
- A. Ascending contrast venography
- B. Duplex venous ultrasonography
- C. Magnetic resonance imaging
- D. Plethysmography
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Duplex venous ultrasonography is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis. It is a non-invasive imaging technique that combines Doppler flow studies with conventional ultrasonography. This allows for the visualization of blood flow in the veins and identification of any blood clots or obstructions. Duplex venous ultrasonography is highly sensitive and specific for detecting deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the lower extremities, making it the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing venous thrombosis. Other imaging modalities like ascending contrast venography, magnetic resonance imaging, and plethysmography are less commonly used due to their disadvantages compared to duplex venous ultrasonography such as invasiveness, cost, and lower accuracy.