The nurse is concerned that a client admitted for a total hip replacement is at risk for thrombus formation. Which assessment finding caused the nurse to draw this conclusion?
- A. Body mass index (BMI) 35.8
- B. Former cigarette smoker
- C. Blood pressure 132/88 mmHg
- D. Age 45 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A former cigarette smoker is at increased risk for thrombus formation due to the damage smoking causes to the blood vessels, increasing the likelihood of blood clots. Smoking can also contribute to inflammation and increased platelet activation, further promoting clot formation. This risk factor is particularly concerning in a client undergoing a total hip replacement surgery, as immobility and surgery itself can also increase the risk of blood clots forming. Monitoring and addressing this risk factor is important in preventing potential complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism in this client population. While the other assessment findings are important to consider for overall health, the former cigarette smoking status is specifically associated with thrombus formation in this scenario.
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The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath. Which electrocardiogram finding indicates the client is at risk for an alteration in perfusion?
- A. P wave smooth and round
- B. Absent U wave
- C. PR interval 0.30 seconds
- D. ST segment isoelectric
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An isoelectric ST segment on an electrocardiogram can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury, which can lead to a decrease in perfusion to the heart muscle. This finding suggests an increased risk of inadequate blood flow to the heart, potentially resulting in further complications such as a myocardial infarction or altered perfusion to other organs. In a client with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath, identifying this ECG finding is crucial for early intervention and monitoring to prevent further deterioration in perfusion status.
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
The nurse is assessing a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which finding would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg
- B. Pulse of 92 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 per minute
- D. Weight gain of 16 oz per week
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg in a client in the third trimester of pregnancy is elevated and could indicate the development of preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder that can have adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure accompanied by signs of organ damage, such as proteinuria and changes in other laboratory values. Immediate intervention is required in this situation, as preeclampsia can lead to complications such as seizures (eclampsia), stroke, and placental abruption. It is essential for the nurse to further assess the client and notify the healthcare provider promptly for appropriate management.
The nurse has a 7-year-old client recovering from partial-thickness burns to the arms and hands. This client has shown sensitivity to loud noises and bright lights, and at times if she is overstimulated she won't speak to or look at anyone but her parents until she calms down. The nurse considers the best teaching environment for this client to be the
- A. client's room.
- B. pediatric ward waiting area.
- C. hospital cafeteria.
- D. pediatric ward play area.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For a 7-year-old client recovering from partial-thickness burns with sensitivity to loud noises and bright lights, along with a tendency to become overstimulated, the best teaching environment would be the client's room. This setting provides a familiar and comforting space where the client feels secure and less exposed to external stimuli that may trigger discomfort or anxiety. Being in her own room allows the client to focus better, feel more at ease, and have better communication with the nurse without distractions from bright lights, loud noises, or other people around. This controlled and peaceful environment contributes to a more effective teaching and learning experience for the client, promoting better understanding and retention of information.
A patient has been vomiting for 4 hours. Which hormone will increase secretion in response to the physiologic changes caused by the vomiting?
- A. ADH
- B. Renin
- C. Thyroxin
- D. Aldosterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes. In response to these physiologic changes caused by vomiting, aldosterone secretion will increase. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase reabsorption of sodium and water, helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance. By increasing aldosterone secretion, the body aims to retain more sodium and water to counteract the effects of vomiting and prevent dehydration.