Nokea
A characteristic of monozygotic twins includes
- A. Always of the same sex
- B. Share a similar fingerprint pattern
- C. Have different blood groups
- D. Superfetation is a common finding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Always of the same sex. Monozygotic twins develop from a single fertilized egg, so they have the same genetic material, making them always the same sex. This is due to the fact that the sex of an individual is determined by the chromosomes inherited from the parents. This is a fundamental principle of genetics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monozygotic twins can have different fingerprints, blood groups, and superfetation (conception that occurs during an existing pregnancy) is not common in monozygotic twins.
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Breech presentation: a) What is meant by “breech presentation”?
- A. Head-first presentation
- B. Bottom or feet-first presentation
- C. Oblique lie
- D. Transverse lie
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Breech presentation refers to the bottom or feet-first position of the baby in the uterus. This is the correct answer (B) because it accurately defines breech presentation. Choice A (head-first presentation) is incorrect as it describes the typical vertex presentation. Choices C (oblique lie) and D (transverse lie) are also incorrect as they refer to other abnormal fetal positions that are different from breech presentation.
Which one of the following statements is correct about secondary post-partum haemorrhage?
- A. Mostly occurs between the 8th-14th day post-partum
- B. Results due to bleeding immediately after delivery
- C. Can extend up to the first 46 days following delivery
- D. Is diagnosed by presence of persistent lochia serosa
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because secondary post-partum hemorrhage can occur up to 6 weeks (46 days) after delivery, typically due to delayed complications like retained placental fragments or infection. Choice A is incorrect because most secondary post-partum hemorrhage occurs after the first week. Choice B is incorrect as it describes primary post-partum hemorrhage, which occurs within 24 hours of delivery. Choice D is incorrect since lochia serosa is a normal discharge present in the early post-partum period and is not specific to diagnosing secondary post-partum hemorrhage.
Prenatally, malaria parasites hide at the
- A. Bone marrow
- B. Placental bed
- C. Fetal circulation
- D. Uterine muscle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental bed. Malaria parasites hide in the placental bed during pregnancy to avoid detection by the immune system. This location provides a safe haven for the parasites to survive and replicate without being cleared by the mother's immune response. The placental bed offers a rich blood supply and a favorable environment for the parasites to thrive.
Incorrect choices:
A: Bone marrow - Malaria parasites do not typically hide in the bone marrow during pregnancy.
C: Fetal circulation - Malaria parasites do not hide in the fetal circulation; they primarily reside in the placental bed.
D: Uterine muscle - Malaria parasites do not hide in the uterine muscle; the placental bed is the main site of sequestration during pregnancy.
Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
- A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy
- B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression
- C. Consult surgery for resection
- D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.
The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with
- A. GCS of 3 to 8 and abnormal head CT
- B. GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension
- C. GCS of 3 to 8 and > 40 years old
- D. GCS of 3 to 8 and bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension) because hypotension is not a specific indication for intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring according to the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines. The rationale is that hypotension is a systemic issue affecting overall perfusion, whereas ICP monitoring is specifically for assessing intracranial dynamics.
A, C, and D are incorrect choices because they all involve conditions that could potentially indicate increased intracranial pressure and the need for monitoring. A) Abnormal head CT indicates structural brain injury, C) age > 40 is a risk factor for poor outcomes after traumatic brain injury, and D) bradycardia can be a sign of increased ICP affecting brainstem function. Therefore, these conditions warrant ICP monitoring according to guidelines.