Nokea
Prior to taking a patient for an emergency cesarean section, it is MOST important to assess that:
- A. A signed informed consent has been given
- B. A Foley’s catheter has been inserted
- C. An intravenous line has been started
- D. The perineal area has been shaved adequately
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because establishing an intravenous line is essential for immediate access to administer fluids, medications, and blood products during the emergency cesarean section. This step ensures that the patient's vital signs can be supported, and any emergent interventions can be readily delivered.
A: While informed consent is important, in an emergency situation, the priority is to ensure the patient's immediate medical needs are met.
B: Inserting a Foley's catheter may be necessary during the procedure, but it is not the most critical assessment prior to the cesarean section.
D: Shaving the perineal area is not a priority in an emergency situation and may be done during the preparation for surgery.
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The MAIN aim of encouraging plenty of fluids to a postnatal client with urinary tract trauma is to
- A. Keep client well hydrated
- B. Maintain proper fluid balance
- C. Facilitate proper healing
- D. Control growth of organisms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep client well hydrated. Encouraging plenty of fluids helps prevent dehydration, maintain adequate urine output, and promote flushing of the urinary tract to prevent infections, all crucial for postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma. Proper hydration also supports overall health and aids in the healing process.
B: Maintain proper fluid balance - While important, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated to support healing.
C: Facilitate proper healing - Proper hydration does facilitate healing, but the primary aim is to keep the client well hydrated.
D: Control growth of organisms - While hydration can help in preventing infections, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated.
During induction of labor with syntocinon, drops increase is stopped prematurely on
- A. Achieving three moderate contractions
- B. Realizing normal maternal observations
- C. Achieving progressive cervical dilatation
- D. Observing normal fetal-related observations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Progressive cervical dilatation indicates effective labor progress.
2. Stopping the syntocinon drops prematurely allows natural labor progression.
3. Prematurely stopping drops before reaching full dilation may hinder labor.
4. Achieving cervical dilatation is a crucial indicator for successful labor.
Summary:
A: Contractions should be strong, not just moderate.
B: Maternal observations alone do not determine labor progress.
D: Fetal-related observations are important but not the primary indicator for stopping drops.
Complete placenta praevia is also referred to as
- A. Type 4
- B. Type 1
- C. Type 2
- D. Type 3
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta praevia is classified into four types based on the degree of coverage of the cervix by the placenta. Complete placenta praevia, where the internal os is completely covered by the placenta, is referred to as Type 4. This is the correct answer as it accurately describes the specific condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the classification system for placenta praevia.
Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by
- A. Blunt trauma
- B. Rotational injury
- C. Seat belts
- D. Gunshot wounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rotational injury. Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are often caused by rotational forces that occur during accidents such as motor vehicle collisions or falls. These forces lead to the spine being twisted, causing separation of the vertebrae. Blunt trauma (A) can cause various spinal injuries but is not specific to flexion-distraction injuries. Seat belts (C) are designed to prevent spinal injuries by restraining the body during a collision. Gunshot wounds (D) can cause spinal cord injuries but are not commonly associated with flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine.
Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:
- A. Rhesus D incompatibility
- B. ABO incompatibility
- C. Physiological jaundice
- D. Instant perinatal death
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis).
Summary:
- Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility.
- Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function.
- Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.