Nokea
A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?
- A. Increased salivation
- B. Reduced sneezing
- C. Increased tearing
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.
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Which of the ff is the most severe complication among clients with allergies, regardless of type?
- A. Bronchitis
- B. Anaphylactic shock and angioneurotic
- C. Cardiac arrest edema
- D. Asthma and nasal polyps
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, anaphylactic shock and angioedema, as it is the most severe complication of allergies and can be life-threatening. Anaphylactic shock can lead to airway constriction, severe drop in blood pressure, and organ failure. Angioedema can cause swelling of the face, lips, and throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bronchitis (A) is a respiratory condition that can occur due to allergies but is not typically life-threatening. Cardiac arrest (C) is a serious complication but not directly related to allergies. Asthma and nasal polyps (D) are common allergic conditions but are not as immediately life-threatening as anaphylactic shock.
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a lumbar puncture?
- A. Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours
- B. Keep the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours
- C. Monitor the patient’s pedal pulses q4h
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after a lumbar puncture to prevent complications like post-lumbar puncture headache. Lying flat helps maintain CSF pressure and reduce the risk of leakage.
B: Keeping the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours is not necessary after a lumbar puncture.
C: Monitoring pedal pulses q4h is irrelevant to post-lumbar puncture care.
D: Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours is not recommended after a lumbar puncture as it may increase the risk of complications.
A patient with a history of haemophilia A arrives in the emergency department complaining of a “funny feeling” in his elbow. The patient states that he thinks he is bleeding into the joint. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A. Palpate the patient’s elbow to assess for swelling.
- B. Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII.
- C. Prepare the patient for an x-ray examination to determine whether bleeding is occurring.
- D. Apply heat to the patient’s elbow and wait for the physician to examine the patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII. In a patient with hemophilia A, which is a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, bleeding into a joint can lead to serious complications. The nurse should notify the physician promptly because the patient may need factor VIII replacement therapy to stop the bleeding and prevent further damage. This is a medical emergency requiring timely intervention.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Palpating the elbow could exacerbate the bleeding and cause further damage.
C: Ordering an x-ray would delay the crucial factor VIII replacement therapy needed to manage the bleeding.
D: Applying heat can increase blood flow to the joint, worsening the bleeding.
Mr. Reyes is extremely confused. The nurse provide new information slowly and in small amounts because;
- A. Confusion or delirium can be a defense against further stress
- B. Destruction of brain cells has occurred, interrupting mental activity
- C. Teaching based on information progressing from the simple to the complex
- D. A minimum of information should be given, since he is unaware of surrounding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When someone is extremely confused, providing new information slowly and in small amounts can help prevent overwhelming stress and further confusion. This approach allows the individual to process information more effectively and reduces the risk of escalating confusion or delirium as a defense mechanism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because destruction of brain cells, teaching progression, and giving minimal information are not directly related to managing confusion in this scenario.
A client asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that is stands for:
- A. Prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer
- B. Protein serum antigen, which is used to determine protein levels
- C. Pneumococcal strep antigen, which is bacteria that causes pneumonia
- D. Papanicolua-specific antigen, which is used to screen for cervical cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels.
C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening.
D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.