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In teaching a female client who is HIV positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know more teaching is necessary when the client says:
- A. “The baby can get the virus from my placenta.”
- B. “I’m planning on starting on birth control pills.”
- C. “Not everyone who has the virus gives birth to a baby who has the virus.”
- D. “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because starting birth control pills does not protect against HIV transmission to the baby during pregnancy. The other choices demonstrate understanding of HIV transmission risks and prevention methods. A shows awareness of vertical transmission, C recognizes that not all babies born to HIV-positive mothers are infected, and D acknowledges the potential need for a C-section to reduce transmission risk. Starting birth control pills is unrelated to preventing mother-to-child HIV transmission during pregnancy.
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While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
- A. Immediately place the patient in isolation.
- B. Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction.
- C. Proceed to the termination phase of the interview.
- D. Document the latex allergy on the medication administration record.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it helps determine the severity of the allergy and how to best proceed with care. By understanding the specific type of reaction the patient experiences, the nurse can implement appropriate precautions and interventions to prevent any adverse reactions during the patient's stay.
Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview is premature and does not address the patient's allergy. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the allergy is important but not the first action to take when assessing a patient's allergic reaction.
A client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
- A. Hair loss.
- B. Fatigue.
- C. Stomatitis.
- D. Vomiting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Radiation therapy targets fast-growing cancer cells, which can also affect healthy cells such as those in hair follicles, leading to hair loss. This adverse effect occurs commonly with radiation therapy due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells. Hair loss is a well-known side effect that clients undergoing radiation therapy are often prepared for. The other choices, B: Fatigue, C: Stomatitis, and D: Vomiting, are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but hair loss is specifically associated with radiation treatment due to its effect on hair follicles. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer treatment in general, stomatitis is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, and vomiting can be a side effect of radiation but is not as directly linked as hair loss.
Which of the following terms would indicate to the nurse that a substance is toxic to the ear?
- A. Otoplasty
- B. Ototoxic
- C. Otalgia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ototoxic. Ototoxic refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, potentially causing hearing loss or damage. The prefix "oto-" specifically relates to the ear. Otoplasty (A) is a surgical procedure to reshape the ear, not related to toxicity. Otalgia (C) refers to ear pain, not toxicity. Tinnitus (D) is a symptom of ringing in the ears, not directly related to toxicity. Therefore, the term "ototoxic" is the best indicator of a substance being toxic to the ear due to its specific reference to ear toxicity.
Serum albumin Is to be administered intravenously to client with ascites, The expected outcome of this treatment will be a decrease in:
- A. Urinary output
- B. Serum ammonia level
- C. Abdominal girth
- D. Hepatic encephalopathy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abdominal girth. Serum albumin helps to increase oncotic pressure in the blood vessels, reducing fluid leakage into the abdomen and decreasing ascites, leading to a decrease in abdominal girth. Option A is incorrect because serum albumin does not directly affect urinary output. Option B is incorrect as serum albumin does not directly impact serum ammonia levels. Option D is incorrect because while serum albumin can help improve liver function, it does not directly treat hepatic encephalopathy.
A client is admitted with a serum glucose of 618mg/dl. The client is awake and oriented, with hot, dry skin; a temperature of 100.6F (38.1 C); a heart rate of 116beats/min; and a blood pressure of 108/70mmHg. Based on these findings, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
- A. Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis
- B. Decreased cardiac output related to increased heart rate
- C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to insulin deficiency
- D. Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis. With a serum glucose level of 618mg/dl, the client is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis, leading to excessive urination (osmotic diuresis) and dehydration. The priority is to address fluid volume deficit to prevent hypovolemic shock. The other options are not the priority because: B: Decreased cardiac output is a result of the increased heart rate, not the primary issue. C: Imbalanced nutrition is important but not as urgent as fluid volume deficit. D: Ineffective thermoregulation is a concern but not the priority in this scenario.