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You would not find which of the following assessments in a patient with severe anemia?
- A. Pallor
- B. Fatigue
- C. Cold sensitivity
- D. Dyspnea only on exertion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cold sensitivity. Severe anemia leads to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, causing symptoms like pallor, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion due to the body compensating for low oxygen levels. Cold sensitivity is not a common symptom associated with anemia. The other choices are directly related to severe anemia due to the lack of oxygen delivery to tissues.
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Which of the ff should qualify as an abnormal result in a Romberg test?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting
- C. Sneezing and wheezing
- D. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. In a Romberg test, the patient stands with feet together and eyes closed to assess proprioception.
2. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting indicates impaired proprioception, suggesting a positive Romberg sign, which is abnormal.
3. Hypotension (choice A) is not directly related to the Romberg test.
4. Sneezing and wheezing (choice C) are unrelated to the test.
5. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear (choice D) does not affect proprioception.
Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to impaired proprioception, which is abnormal in a Romberg test. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are unrelated to the purpose of the test.
Which assessment action will help the nurse determine if the patient with Bell’s Palsy is receiving adequate nutrition?
- A. Monitor meal trays
- B. Check twice-weekly weights
- C. Measure intake and output
- D. Assess swallowing reflex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess swallowing reflex. This is crucial for a patient with Bell's Palsy as it can affect their ability to swallow properly, leading to inadequate nutrition intake. By assessing the swallowing reflex, the nurse can determine if the patient is at risk of aspiration or difficulty in eating, which directly impacts their nutrition status. Monitoring meal trays (A) may not provide accurate information on actual food intake. Checking weights (B) only gives limited information on nutrition status. Measuring intake and output (C) is important for fluid balance but may not directly reflect adequate nutrition intake.
A nurse is directed to administer a hypotonic intravenous solution. The nurse expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause all of the following symptoms except:
- A. O.45% sodium chloride
- B. 5% dextrose in water
- C. O.90% sodium chloride
- D. 5% dextrose in normal saline solution
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 0.90% sodium chloride. When administering a hypotonic solution like 0.45% sodium chloride or 5% dextrose in water, water moves into the cells causing them to swell. This can exacerbate symptoms of hypovolemia such as low blood pressure and decreased perfusion. However, 0.90% sodium chloride is an isotonic solution and will not further exacerbate hypovolemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are hypotonic solutions that can worsen hypovolemic symptoms by causing cellular swelling.
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
- A. pupil size, response to pain, motor responses
- B. Pupil size, verbal response, motor response
- C. Eye opening, verbal response, motor response
- D. Eye opening, response to pain, motor response J.E, is an 18-year old freshman admitted to the ICU following a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained multiple trauma including a ruptured spleen, myocardial contusion, fractured pelvis, and fractured right femur. He had a mild contusion, but is alert and oriented. His vital signs BP 120/80, pulse 84, respirations 12, and temperature 99 F orally.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
- A. The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help.
- B. The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications.
- C. The patient is apprehensive about discharge.
- D. The patient’s surgery was not successful.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.