Nokea
A client who is HIV positive should have the mouth examined for which oral problem common associated with AIDS?
- A. Halitosis
- B. Creamy white patches
- C. Carious teeth
- D. Swollen lips
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.
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The nurse knows which of the following statements about TPN and peripheral parenteral nutrition is true?
- A. TPN is usually indicated for clients needing short term (less than 3 weeks) nutritional support, whereas PPN is for long term maintenance
- B. A client needing more than 3000 calories would receive PPN, whereas TPN is given to those requiring less than 3000 calories
- C. TPN is often given to those with fluid restrictions, whereas PPN is used for those without constraints on their fluid intake
- D. TPN is given to those who need to augment oral feeding, whereas PPN is used for those who are nothing by mouth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) is indeed given to patients with fluid restrictions, as it provides complete nutrition including fluids, electrolytes, and nutrients. On the other hand, PPN (Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition) is used for patients without fluid restrictions as it provides partial nutrition. A is incorrect because TPN is typically for long-term use and PPN for short-term use. B is incorrect as the caloric requirement does not determine the type of parenteral nutrition. D is incorrect because both TPN and PPN can be used for patients who are unable to eat orally.
A client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?
- A. Adrenal cortex
- B. Adrenal medulla
- C. Pancreas
- D. none of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.
Which of the ff is the most important factor in the nursing management of clients who undergo treatment for a malignant tumor ff the urinary diversion procedure?
- A. Placement of IV and central venous pressure lines
- B. Administrating cleansing enemas
- C. Observing for leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis
- D. Assessing the clients ability to manage self catheterization
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observing for leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis. This is crucial in nursing management post-urinary diversion procedure to prevent complications such as infection, dehydration, and skin breakdown. Leakage can indicate issues with the surgical site integrity and requires prompt intervention.
A: Placement of IV and central venous pressure lines is important but not as critical as monitoring for leakage from the anastomosis.
B: Administering cleansing enemas may be necessary for certain procedures but is not the most important factor in this case.
D: Assessing the client's ability to manage self-catheterization is important for long-term care but does not take precedence over monitoring for potential complications like leakage.
In summary, option C is the most important factor as it directly impacts the client's immediate post-operative care and helps prevent serious complications.
A client has just completed a course in radiation therapy and is experiencing radio-dermatitis. The most effective method of treating the skin is to:
- A. Wash the area with soap and warm water
- B. Leave the skin alone until it is clear
- C. Apply a cream or lotion to the area
- D. Avoid applying creams or lotion to the area
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apply a cream or lotion to the area. This is because radio-dermatitis is a common side effect of radiation therapy, causing skin irritation and dryness. Applying a cream or lotion helps to moisturize the skin, reduce inflammation, and promote healing. Washing the area with soap can further irritate the skin. Leaving the skin alone may prolong discomfort and delay healing. Avoiding creams or lotions can worsen dryness and discomfort. Overall, applying a suitable cream or lotion is the most effective method to alleviate symptoms and support skin recovery in radio-dermatitis.
A patient reports on admission being “very sick” after taking erythromycin in the past. The patient is to receive erythromycin now. Which of the following actions should the nurse take regarding giving the antibiotic?
- A. Give the antibiotic
- B. Do not give the antibiotic
- C. Give half of the dose
- D. Discontinue the antibiotic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not give the antibiotic. This is because the patient has a history of being "very sick" after taking erythromycin in the past, indicating a potential allergic reaction or severe adverse effects. The nurse should not administer the antibiotic to prevent harm to the patient. Choice A is incorrect as it can lead to a repeat adverse reaction. Choice C, giving half the dose, still exposes the patient to potential harm. Choice D, discontinuing the antibiotic, is also incorrect as it implies the patient has already started the medication, which should not be the case given the history of adverse effects.