Nokea
A client with colon cancer requires a permanent colostomy because of the tumor location. After surgery, the client must learn how to irrigate the colostomy. When irrigating, how far into the stoma should the client insert the lubricated catheter?
- A. 0.25” to 0.5”
- B. 2” to 4”
- C. 1” to 1.5”
- D. 5” to 7”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 1” to 1.5”. When irrigating a colostomy, the client should insert the lubricated catheter about 1” to 1.5” into the stoma. This depth allows for effective irrigation of the colon without causing discomfort or damage. Inserting the catheter too shallow (choice A) may not reach the colon, while inserting it too deep (choices B and D) can cause injury or perforation. Therefore, the optimal depth of 1” to 1.5” ensures proper irrigation while minimizing risks of complications.
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Which of the following complications can occur if a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed?
- A. A clot can enter the circulation.
- B. An air embolism can enter the circulation.
- C. A painful arterial spasm can occur.
- D. Fluid extravasation into surrounding tissue can occur.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A clot can enter the circulation. When a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed, the force can dislodge the clot, allowing it to enter the circulation and potentially leading to serious complications such as embolism.
Incorrect choices:
B: An air embolism can enter the circulation - In the context of a clotted cannula, air embolism is less likely compared to a clot entering the circulation.
C: A painful arterial spasm can occur - Arterial spasm is a potential complication but not directly related to flushing a clotted cannula.
D: Fluid extravasation into surrounding tissue can occur - Flushing a clotted cannula may not specifically lead to fluid extravasation, as it is more related to needle dislodgement or improper placement.
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
- A. It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis
- B. It’s cell cycle-phase specific
- C. It inhibits ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis
- D. It inhibits protein synthesis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin works by cross-linking DNA, leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis and ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cancer cells.
B: It’s cell cycle-phase specific - This is incorrect because mitomycin is not specific to a particular phase of the cell cycle.
C: It inhibits ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis, not RNA synthesis.
D: It inhibits protein synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin's main mechanism of action is through DNA cross-linking, not protein synthesis inhibition.
A nurse is using the problem-oriented approach to data collection. Which action will the nurse take first?
- A. Complete the questions in chronological order.
- B. Focus on the patient’s presenting situation.
- C. Make accurate interpretations of the data.
- D. Conduct an observational overview.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focus on the patient's presenting situation. In the problem-oriented approach, the nurse starts by identifying the patient's main issue or reason for seeking care. This step helps prioritize data collection and guides further assessment and intervention. By focusing on the presenting situation, the nurse can gather relevant information efficiently and address the immediate concern.
Incorrect choices:
A: Completing questions in chronological order may not be the most effective approach as it does not prioritize the patient's current problem.
C: Making accurate interpretations of data comes after data collection and analysis, not as the first step.
D: Conducting an observational overview is important, but it should come after focusing on the patient's presenting situation to gather targeted data.
What does a nurse assess postoperatively in a client with a nasal fracture?
- A. Allergic reaction
- B. Extreme sense of smell
- C. Airway obstruction
- D. Stridor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airway obstruction. Postoperatively, a nurse must assess for airway patency in a client with a nasal fracture to ensure proper breathing. Any swelling or bleeding in the nasal area can lead to airway obstruction, which is a critical concern that needs immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an allergic reaction, extreme sense of smell, and stridor are not typically associated with postoperative assessment of a nasal fracture. It is crucial to prioritize airway assessment to prevent any complications related to breathing difficulties in this situation.
for pain management. When applying a new system, the nurse should:
- A. Press the system in place for 30 to 60 seconds.
- B. Choose a site on the lower torso.
- C. Shave the application site before use.
- D. Apply the system immediately after removal from a package.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A: Pressing the system in place for 30 to 60 seconds helps ensure proper adhesion and absorption of the medication. This step is crucial for the effectiveness of the pain management system.
B: Choosing a site on the lower torso is not necessary for applying the system. The site selection should be based on guidelines and patient preference.
C: Shaving the application site is not recommended unless specifically indicated. It is not a standard step for applying a pain management system.
D: Applying the system immediately after removal from a package may not allow the adhesive to fully activate, affecting its efficacy. It is important to follow the recommended steps for proper application.