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A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client’s plan of care?
- A. Avoiding using a soap on the irradiated areas
- B. Applying talcum powder to the irradiated areas daily after bathing
- C. Wearing a lead apron during direct contact with the client
- D. Removing thoracic skin markings after each radiation treatment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas. This is because soap can irritate the skin, leading to skin breakdown in a client at risk for impaired skin integrity due to radiation therapy. Avoiding soap helps to prevent further damage to the skin.
Choice B is incorrect as talcum powder can further irritate the skin and should be avoided. Choice C is not relevant to preventing skin integrity issues. Choice D is incorrect because thoracic skin markings should not be removed as they are essential for accurate radiation delivery.
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A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which evaluative measures will the nurse use to determine a patient’s responses to nursing care? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Observations of wound healing
- B. Daily blood pressure measurements
- C. Findings of respiratory rate and depth
- D. Completion of nursing interventions NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observations of wound healing. This is the correct evaluative measure because it directly assesses the patient's response to nursing care, indicating the effectiveness of interventions. Wound healing is a tangible and visible indicator of the patient's overall health status and the success of nursing interventions.
The other choices are incorrect:
B: Daily blood pressure measurements do not solely indicate a patient's response to nursing care. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors unrelated to nursing interventions.
C: Findings of respiratory rate and depth are important for assessing respiratory status but may not directly reflect the patient's response to nursing care.
D: Completion of nursing interventions is a process measure and does not provide direct insight into the patient's response to care.
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Acute pain
- C. Sleep apnea
- D. Heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
- A. Antiemetic
- B. Antibiotic
- C. Antimetabolite
- D. Anticoagulant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps manage these side effects and improve the patient's quality of life during chemotherapy. Antibiotics (B) are used to treat bacterial infections, not chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy side effects like nausea and vomiting.
While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?
- A. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time
- B. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and white blood cell (WBC) count
- C. Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels
- D. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time. These parameters are essential in monitoring DIC because platelet count reflects the risk of bleeding, while prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time indicate impaired clotting function, which is characteristic of DIC.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice B: Blood glucose levels and WBC count are not specific indicators for DIC monitoring.
- Choice C: Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels do not directly assess clotting abnormalities associated with DIC.
- Choice D: While fibrinogen level is important in DIC, WBC count alone is not a specific indicator for monitoring DIC.
What is the most important postoperative instruction the nurse must give a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?
- A. “Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns.”
- B. “Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours.”
- C. “Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine.”
- D. “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” After a subarachnoid block, the client must remain lying down to prevent complications like spinal headaches due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage. This position helps maintain adequate spinal fluid pressure. Choice A is incorrect as fluid intake is important postoperatively. Choice B is not relevant to a subarachnoid block. Choice C is important but not the most crucial instruction compared to maintaining the supine position.