Nokea
Which of the ff. does the nurse understand are the reasons a patient with pulmonary edema is given morphine sulphate? i.To reduce anxiety iv.To increase BP ii.To relieve chest pain v.To reduce preload and afterload iii.To strengthen heart contractions
- A. 2 and 4
- B. 3 and 5
- C. 1 and 5
- D. 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because morphine sulfate is given to a patient with pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety (i) and to reduce preload and afterload (v). Morphine sulfate does not increase blood pressure (ii), relieve chest pain (iii), or strengthen heart contractions (iv) in the context of pulmonary edema. Choice A is incorrect because it includes increasing BP, which is not a reason for giving morphine sulfate in this case. Choice B is incorrect because it includes strengthening heart contractions, which is not a reason for administering morphine sulfate. Choice D is incorrect because it includes relieving chest pain, which is not a primary purpose of giving morphine sulfate to a patient with pulmonary edema.
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A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)?
- A. White, cottage cheese-like patches on the
- B. Red, open sores on the oral mucosa
- C. Rust-colored sputum
- D. Yellow tooth discoloration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because red, open sores on the oral mucosa are a common sign of stomatitis, which can be caused by chemotherapy. Stomatitis is characterized by inflammation and ulceration of the mouth lining. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: White, cottage cheese-like patches are indicative of oral thrush, a fungal infection.
C: Rust-colored sputum may indicate a respiratory condition or infection, not stomatitis.
D: Yellow tooth discoloration is not typically associated with stomatitis, but can be caused by various factors such as poor oral hygiene or certain foods.
Which of the ff. is a normal hemoglobin value?
- A. 38% to 48%
- B. 48 to 54 mg%
- C. 12 to 18 g/100mL
- D. 27 to 36 g/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 12 to 18 g/100mL. Normal hemoglobin values typically range from 12 to 18 g/100mL in adults. This range reflects the normal concentration of hemoglobin in the blood and is commonly used as a reference range in clinical practice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fall within the typical normal range for hemoglobin levels. Choice A (38% to 48%) is a percentage range, not a direct measurement of hemoglobin concentration. Choice B (48 to 54 mg%) and Choice D (27 to 36 g/dL) are outside the normal range for hemoglobin levels in adults. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice among the options provided is C (12 to 18 g/100mL) based on standard reference values for hemoglobin concentration in the blood.
An adult suffered a diving accident and is being brought in by an ambulance intubated and on backboard with a cervical collar. What is the first action the nurse would take on arrival in the hospital?
- A. Take the client vital signs
- B. Insert a large bore IV line
- C. Check the lungs for equal breath sounds bilaterally
- D. Perform a neurologic check using the Glasgow scale
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Upon arrival, checking the lungs for equal breath sounds bilaterally is the first action. This is crucial to assess airway patency and breathing effectiveness in a patient with a history of diving accident and intubation. Ensuring proper oxygenation takes precedence over other actions. Taking vital signs, inserting an IV line, and performing a neurologic check can wait until airway and breathing are adequately assessed.
During outcome identification and planning, from what part of the nursing diagnoses are outcomes derived?
- A. The defining characteristics
- B. The related factors
- C. The problem statement
- D. The database
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During outcome identification and planning, outcomes are derived from the problem statement of the nursing diagnoses. This is because the problem statement clearly defines the patient's health issue or condition that needs to be addressed, thus guiding the development of specific, measurable, and achievable outcomes. The defining characteristics (choice A) describe the signs and symptoms of the health problem but do not directly lead to outcome identification. The related factors (choice B) represent the potential causes or contributing factors to the health problem and are not used to derive outcomes. The database (choice D) consists of the patient's health history, assessment data, and laboratory findings, which are essential for diagnosing but do not directly determine outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it directly informs the outcomes to be achieved.
A patient is scheduled for an MRI and asks what to expect. Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
- A. “It is the measurement of muscle contraction after stimulation by tiny needle electrodes.”
- B. “Electrodes will be placed on your scalp to measure activity of the brain.”
- C. “A scan of the brain will be done after injection of radioisotope.”
- D. “It is a noninvasive test that uses magnetic energy to visualize internal parts.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an MRI is a noninvasive imaging test that uses magnetic energy to produce detailed images of internal body parts. This explanation is accurate and informative, reassuring the patient.
A is incorrect because it describes electromyography (EMG), not MRI. B is incorrect as it describes electroencephalography (EEG), not MRI. C is incorrect because it describes a nuclear medicine test, not MRI. In summary, only option D provides a correct and relevant description of what to expect during an MRI.