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Which hemodynamic parameter is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor to determine the effectiveness of medications given to a patient to reduce left ventricular afterload?
- A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
- B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
- C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
- D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR). SVR reflects the resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood into the systemic circulation. By monitoring SVR, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of medications aimed at reducing left ventricular afterload, as these medications work by dilating blood vessels and reducing resistance. An effective reduction in afterload would lead to a decrease in SVR.
A: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is an indicator of perfusion pressure but may not directly reflect changes in afterload.
C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is specific to the pulmonary circulation and not directly related to left ventricular afterload.
D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is a measure of left ventricular preload and filling pressures, not afterload.
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A 75-year-old patient, who suffered a massive stroke 3 weeks ago, has been unresponsive and
- A. The primary health care provider has approached the spouse regarding placement of a perma nent feeding tube. The spouse states that the patient never wanted to be kept alive by tub es and personally didn’t want what was being done. After holding a family conference with th e spouse, the medical team concurs and the feeding tube is not placed. What term would be used to describe this situation?
- B. Euthanasia
- C. Palliative care
- D. Withdrawal of life support
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Step 1: The scenario describes a decision made based on the patient's previously expressed wishes.
Step 2: The decision aligns with the principle of respecting patient autonomy.
Step 3: The term that best describes this situation is "Advance Directive."
Summary:
- A: Incorrect, as it involves actively ending the patient's life without their consent.
- B: Incorrect, as euthanasia involves intentionally causing death to relieve suffering.
- C: Incorrect, as palliative care focuses on improving quality of life for the patient.
- D: Incorrect, as withdrawal of life support involves discontinuing medical interventions, not honoring the patient's wishes.
What are the diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study
- B. Decreased cardiac output
- C. PaO /FiO ratio of less than 200 2 2
- D. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of more than 18 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study. ARDS diagnosis requires bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, indicative of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Choice B, decreased cardiac output, is not a diagnostic criterion for ARDS. Choice C, PaO2/FiO2 ratio of less than 200, is a key diagnostic criteria for ARDS, indicating severe hypoxemia. Choice D, PAOP of more than 18 mm Hg, is used to differentiate between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic causes of pulmonary edema, but it is not a direct diagnostic criterion for ARDS.
A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. Which organ function is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Cardiorespiratory.
- B. Liver.
- C. Sensory.
- D. Kidney.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver. The nurse should monitor liver function in this client because acetaminophen is primarily metabolized in the liver. Alcohol abuse can also contribute to liver damage, increasing the risk of liver toxicity from acetaminophen. Monitoring liver function tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels can help detect any liver damage early.
Choice A, cardiorespiratory, is not directly related to acetaminophen or alcohol abuse in this scenario. Choice C, sensory, is not relevant to monitoring organ function in this context. Choice D, kidney, is not the primary concern because acetaminophen is mainly metabolized in the liver, and kidney function is not typically affected by acetaminophen use.
After the change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?
- A. Patient who was extubated in the morning and has a temperature of 101.4°F (38.6°C).
- B. Patient with bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) for sleep apnea whose respiratory rate is 16.
- C. Patient with arterial pressure monitoring who is 2 hours post percutaneous coronary intervention and needs to void.
- D. Patient who is receiving IV heparin for venous thromboembolism and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 98 seconds.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed.
A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4°F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT.
B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment.
C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.
The nurse is discharging a patient home following treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse sh ould provide instruction?
- A. “If you get the pneumococcal vaccine, you’ll never get pneumonia again.”
- B. “It is important for you to get an annual influenza shot to reduce your risk of pneumonia.”
- C. “Stay away from cold, drafty places because that incre ases your risk of pneumonia when you get home.”
- D. “Since you have been treated for pneumonia, you now have immunity from getting it in the future.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Influenza can lead to pneumonia as a complication, so getting an annual flu shot can reduce the risk of pneumonia.
Step 2: Providing education on the importance of prevention aligns with discharge teaching goals.
Step 3: Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine doesn't guarantee immunity from all causes of pneumonia.
Step 4: Option C is incorrect as cold or drafty places do not directly cause pneumonia.
Step 5: Option D is incorrect as having pneumonia once does not confer permanent immunity.