Nokea
A nurse is assessing a patient with schizophrenia who is experiencing delusions. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Agree with the patient's delusions to avoid confrontation.
- B. Encourage the patient to explore the basis of the delusions.
- C. Engage the patient in reality-based activities.
- D. Ask the patient to explain the delusions in detail.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention when assessing a patient with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to engage the patient in reality-based activities. This intervention helps distract the patient from the delusions and reorients them to the present, promoting grounding in reality. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with delusions can reinforce them and hinder treatment. Choice B may exacerbate the delusions by delving deeper into their basis. Choice D may not be beneficial as it focuses solely on the delusions without addressing the need to ground the patient in reality.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Citalopram
- C. Paroxetine
- D. Escitalopram
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder due to its efficacy in managing OCD symptoms. While different SSRIs may be used based on individual patient response and tolerability, Paroxetine stands out as a well-established option for treating OCD. Fluoxetine (Choice A) is another SSRI commonly used for OCD, but Paroxetine is more commonly associated with this indication. Citalopram (Choice B) and Escitalopram (Choice D) are also SSRIs but are not typically the first choice for treating OCD.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Norepinephrine
- C. Dopamine
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.
What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
- A. Encourage deep, slow breathing.
- B. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
- C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
- D. Engage the patient in a physical activity.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging deep, slow breathing is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack. This technique can help the patient regulate their breathing, reduce hyperventilation, and promote relaxation, which are essential in managing the symptoms of a panic attack.
Choice B, encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings, may not be effective during an acute panic attack as the focus should be on calming the patient down. Choice C, leaving the patient alone, can lead to increased feelings of fear and isolation during a panic attack. Choice D, engaging the patient in physical activity, may exacerbate symptoms as it can increase the feeling of being out of control.
In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Exposure and response prevention
- C. Interpersonal therapy
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.