Nokea
What should a designated healthcare surrogate base healthcare decisions on?
- A. Personal beliefs and values
- B. Recommendations of family members and friends
- C. Recommendations of the physician and healthcare team
- D. Wishes previously expressed by the patient
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the healthcare surrogate should base decisions on recommendations of the physician and healthcare team who have the expertise to provide medical advice. They are best positioned to understand the patient's condition and treatment options. Personal beliefs (A) may not align with medical best practices. Family and friends' recommendations (B) may not be informed by medical knowledge. Wishes previously expressed by the patient (D) are important but may need to be interpreted in the context of the current medical situation, which healthcare professionals can provide.
You may also like to solve these questions
What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?
- A. Case management.
- B. Team nursing.
- C. Primary nursing.
- D. Functional nursing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary nursing. Primary nursing is a care delivery model where one nurse is responsible for the total care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period. This promotes continuity of care, individualized attention, and better nurse-client relationships. In primary nursing, the nurse plans and directs care, coordinates with other healthcare team members, and serves as the main point of contact for the clients.
A: Case management involves coordinating care across different healthcare providers and services, not necessarily focusing on a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period.
B: Team nursing involves a team of healthcare providers working together to deliver care, rather than one nurse being responsible for a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period.
D: Functional nursing divides tasks among different healthcare team members based on their specific skills, which may not provide the same level of continuity and individualized care as primary nursing.
A critically ill patient who is intubated and agitated is restrained with soft wrist restraints. Based on research findings, what is the best nursing action?
- A. Maintain the restraints to protect patient safety.
- B. Remove the restraints periodically to check skin integrity.
- C. Remove the restraints periodically for range of motion.
- D. Assess and intervene for causes of agitation. Answer Key
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess and intervene for causes of agitation. In a critically ill patient, agitation while intubated could indicate underlying issues like pain, delirium, or inadequate sedation. By assessing and addressing the root cause of agitation, the nurse can improve patient comfort and prevent potential harm from restraints. Removing restraints periodically for skin integrity (B) and range of motion (C) is important but should not be the primary focus when agitation is present. Maintaining restraints (A) without addressing the agitation could lead to increased distress and potential complications.
A patient who has been diagnosed with inoperable lung cancer and has a poor prognosis plans a trip across the country to settle some issues with their siblings. The nurse recognizes that the patient is manifesting which psychosocial response to death?
- A. Restlessness.
- B. Yearning and protest.
- C. Anxiety about unfinished business.
- D. Fear of the meaninglessness of one’s life.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anxiety about unfinished business. The patient's desire to settle issues with their siblings before death indicates a concern about unresolved matters. This response aligns with the concept of psychosocial responses to death, specifically the need for closure and resolution. Restlessness (choice A) may not necessarily indicate a specific focus on unfinished business. Yearning and protest (choice B) typically refer to the initial stages of grief, not specifically related to settling unresolved issues. Fear of the meaninglessness of one's life (choice D) is more existential and philosophical, whereas the patient's focus here is on addressing specific issues with their siblings.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving continuous norepinephrine (Levophed) IV infusion. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted?
- A. Heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
- B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 56 mm Hg.
- C. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated.
- D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a low Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) indicates inadequate perfusion, which may require adjusting the norepinephrine infusion rate to increase blood pressure. A: A heart rate of 58 beats/minute is within a normal range and may not necessarily indicate a need for adjustment. C: Elevated Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) may be an expected response to norepinephrine and does not necessarily indicate a need for adjustment. D: A low Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP) may indicate fluid volume deficit but does not directly relate to the need for adjusting norepinephrine infusion rate.
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
- A. Antacids.
- B. Tricyclic antidepressants.
- C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
- D. Insulin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tricyclic antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention, especially in the elderly. Morphine sulfate can also contribute to urinary retention. Antacids (A) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (C) are not known to cause urinary retention. Insulin (D) does not pose a risk for urinary retention in this scenario.