The nurse on a medical unit has received the morning shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client who has a 0730 sliding-scale insulin order.
- B. The client who received an initial dose of IV antibiotic at 0645.
- C. The client who is having back pain at a '4' on a 1-to-10 scale.
- D. The client who has dysphagia and needs to be fed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 0730 insulin order is time-sensitive to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Antibiotic monitoring, mild pain, and dysphagia are less urgent.
You may also like to solve these questions
The client who has engaged in needle-sharing activities has developed a flu-like illness. An HIV antibody test is negative. Which statement best describes the scientific rationale for this finding?
- A. The client is fortunate not to have contracted HIV from an infected needle.
- B. The client must be repeatedly exposed to HIV before becoming infected.
- C. The client may be in the primary infection phase of an HIV infection.
- D. The antibody test is negative because the client has a different flu virus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A negative antibody test during flu-like symptoms may indicate the primary HIV infection phase, before seroconversion. Single exposure can infect, and flu viruses are unrelated.
Which assessment data should make the nurse suspect the client has chronic allergies?
- A. Jaundiced sclera and jaundiced palms of hands.
- B. Pale, boggy, edematous nasal mucosa.
- C. Lacy white plaques on the oral mucosa.
- D. Purple or blue patches on the face.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pale, boggy, edematous nasal mucosa indicates chronic allergic rhinitis. Jaundice, oral plaques, and facial patches suggest other conditions.
Which signs/symptoms make the nurse suspect the most common opportunistic infection in the female client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
- A. Fever, cough, and shortness of breath.
- B. Oral thrush, esophagitis, and vaginal candidiasis.
- C. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss.
- D. Painless violet lesions on the face and tip of nose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fever, cough, and shortness of breath indicate Pneumocystis pneumonia, the most common AIDS opportunistic infection. Candidiasis, GI symptoms, and Kaposi’s sarcoma are less frequent.
Which intervention is an important psychosocial consideration for the client diagnosed with AIDS?
- A. Perform a thorough head-to-toe assessment.
- B. Maintain the client's ideal body weight.
- C. Complete an advance directive.
- D. Increase the client's activity tolerance.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Completing an advance directive addresses end-of-life wishes, a key psychosocial need in AIDS. Assessment, weight, and activity are physiological.
The client with RA has nontender, movable nodules in the subcutaneous tissue over the elbows and shoulders. Which statement is the scientific rationale for the nodules?
- A. The nodules indicate a rapidly progressive destruction of the affected tissue.
- B. The nodules are small amounts of synovial fluid that have become crystallized.
- C. The nodules are lymph nodes which have proliferated to try to fight the disease.
- D. The nodules present a favorable prognosis and mean the client is better.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RA nodules are granulomas, sometimes containing synovial fluid, due to chronic inflammation. They do not indicate rapid destruction, lymph node proliferation, or better prognosis.