Nokea
Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:
- A. inspection for visible pulsation.
- B. palpation of thrill.
- C. percussion for dullness.
- D. auscultation of blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thrill should be present. The client should be taught to check this daily at home. Pulsation is not typically visible. Percussion gives no information about the patency of a fistula. Blood pressure is not auscultated in a limb with an AVF. Auscultation of the AVF, for a bruit, is part of an assessment for patency.
You may also like to solve these questions
Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of:
- A. primary prevention.
- B. secondary prevention.
- C. tertiary prevention.
- D. primary health care prevention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention targets the reduction of disease prevalence and disease morbidity through early diagnosis and treatment.
When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:
- A. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance
- B. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection
- C. Therapy should be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity
- D. Therapy should be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV mutates very rapidly, and any interruption of therapy can allow viral resistance to emerge - even taking a dose late. Choice B is incorrect because, when the virus is kept in check with anti-retrovirals, the client's own immune system is able to keep opportunistic infections at bay. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If the client develops toxicity, another anti-retroviral drug might be prescribed.
A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:
- A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary.
- B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed.
- C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35.
- D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client's BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Goals of diet therapy are aimed at decreasing weight and increasing activity to healthy levels based on a client's BMI, activity status, and energy requirements.
Clients who take iron preparations should be warned of the possible side effects, which might include:
- A. dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
- B. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea or constipation, and stomach cramps
- C. drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue
- D. neuropathy and tingling in the extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iron supplements commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, and stomach cramps, requiring client education.
Laboratory tests reveal the following electrolyte values for Mr. Smith: Na 135 mEq/L, Ca 8.5 mg/dL, Cl 102 mEq/L, and K 2.0 mEq/L. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the physician because of its potential risk to the client?
- A. Ca
- B. K
- C. Na
- D. Cl
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L is critically low (normal 3.5-5.5 mEq/L), risking cardiac arrhythmias, and should be reported immediately.