The client with type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with gout and prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim). Which instruction should the nurse discuss when teaching about this medication?
- A. The client will probably develop a red rash on the body.
- B. The client should drink two (2) to three (3) liters of water a day.
- C. The client should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. The client will need to increase oral diabetic medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol increases uric acid excretion, risking kidney stones; 2–3 L water daily prevents this. Rash is possible but not probable, stomach timing is flexible, and diabetes meds are unaffected.
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A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) therapy. What should the nurse plan to monitor in this client?
- A. Urine output every 4 hours
- B. Blood glucose levels every 12 hours
- C. Neurological signs every 2 hours
- D. Oxygen saturation every 8 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The drug Decadron increases gluconeogenesis. This may lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore the blood sugar level and acetone production must be monitored.
The nurse is hanging 1,000 mL of IV fluids to run for eight (8) hours. The intravenous tubing is a microdrip. How many gtt/min should the IV rate be set?
Correct Answer: 15
Rationale: Microdrip is 60 gtt/mL. Rate: (1,000 mL / 8 hr) x (60 gtt/mL / 60 min) = 125 mL/hr x 1 gtt/min = 15.625 gtt/min, rounded to 15 gtt/min.
The clinic nurse is teaching an adult male who has AIDS. He is receiving zidovudine. Which statement he makes indicates that he understands the medication regimen?
- A. If I get a sore throat and it is hard to swallow my capsules, I can empty the capsule into applesauce.
- B. I am hopeful that this drug will get rid of this awful disease.
- C. I understand I might need a transfusion.
- D. I should take acetaminophen (Tylenol), not aspirin, if I get a fever.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Zidovudine can cause bone marrow suppression; acetaminophen is safer than aspirin, which increases bleeding risk.
The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease is prescribed an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor to help reduce the cholesterol level. Which assessment data should be reported to the health-care provider?
- A. Complaints of flatulence.
- B. Weight loss of two (2) pounds.
- C. Complaints of muscle pain.
- D. No bowel movement for two (2) days.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Muscle pain with statins may indicate myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, requiring urgent HCP reporting. Flatulence, weight loss, or constipation are less serious.
The client is complaining of nausea, and the nurse administers the antiemetic promethazine (Phenergan), IVP. Which intervention has priority for this client after administering this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to call the nurse before getting out of bed.
- B. Evaluate the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
- D. Tell the client not to eat or drink for at least one (1) hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Promethazine causes sedation and orthostatic hypotension; instructing to call before ambulating prevents falls, the priority post-IVP.