The nurse is providing teaching to the client receiving a thiazide diuretic. Which points should the nurse plan to include? Select all that apply.
- A. Take the radial pulse before setting up the medication.
- B. Include fruits such as melons and bananas in the diet.
- C. Report side effects such as muscle cramps, nausea, or a skin rash.
- D. Take the last dose at bedtime when fluids are at the highest level.
- E. Avoid high-fat foods; thiazide diuretics increase cholesterol levels.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: A: It is unnecessary for the client to monitor the pulse prior to taking thiazide diuretics. B: Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia, and potassium-rich foods can help maintain potassium levels. C: Muscle cramps are a sign of possible medication side effects of hypokalemia and hypocalcemia. Nausea and rash are also medication side effects. D: A diuretic taken at bedtime can cause nocturia and loss of sleep. The usual timing of the last daily dose of a diuretic is at suppertime. E: Thiazide diuretics can increase serum cholesterol, LDL, and triglyceride levels, so teaching the client to avoid high-fat foods will help maintain cholesterol levels.
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During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?
- A. Brain
- B. Bone
- C. Liver
- D. Mediastinum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rectal adenocarcinoma commonly metastasizes to the liver via the portal vein and lymphatics, making it the most likely next site.
The nurse is caring for a client who has recently started using a PCA pump for pain management. Which of the following statements indicates a need for additional education.
- A. I will continue to report my pain score during assessments.
- B. I understand that there is a maximum dose in an hour that I can receive regardless of how many times I press the button.
- C. I think this new PCA pump is going to finally get rid of my back pain.
- D. I have more control of when and how much medication I receive.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client for reasonable versus unreasonable expectations of pain management when using a PCA pump. The patient should not expect the pain to go away completely.
The initial treatment regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol is prescribed for the adolescent who has a positive tuberculin skin test. The client confides that she thinks she may be pregnant and asks if she should be taking these medications. Which rationale should be the basis for the nurse's response?
- A. These drugs cross the placental barrier, and treatment should be withheld until the postpartum period.
- B. The medications should be taken, but the diagnosis is an indication for termination of the pregnancy.
- C. The medications should be postponed because the risk for hepatitis is greatly increased in the intrapartum period.
- D. The medications should be taken; untreated TB represents a far greater hazard to the pregnant woman and her fetus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The medications do not cross the placental barrier, so treatment should not be withheld. B: Administering antituberculosis medications would not be an indication for termination of pregnancy because the medications are safe during pregnancy. C: The risk of hepatitis is slightly increased with the use of antituberculosis medications in pregnant women; however, the benefits of treatment strongly outweigh postponement of treatment. D: Infants born to women with untreated TB may be of lower birth weight, but rarely would the infant acquire congenital TB. Isoniazid (Nydrazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and ethambutol (Myambutol) are all considered safe for use in pregnancy.
The 14-year-old who has GERD is receiving lansoprazole. Which response should the nurse expect if lansoprazole is achieving the desired therapeutic effect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Increased GI motility
- C. Decreased epigastric pain
- D. Decreased rectal flatulence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Lansoprazole would not be expected to change appetite. B: Lansoprazole is not a gastric motility agent. C: Lansoprazole (Prevacid) is a PPI of stomach acid secretion. Decreasing the overall pH allows the gastric mucosa to heal. D: Flatulence is not affected.
The hospitalized client is prescribed to receive ferrous fumarate 200 mg oral daily. When transcribing the medication onto the client's MAR, at which time in military time should the nurse schedule the daily dose for best absorption?
- A. 830
- B. 1000
- C. 1230
- D. 1730
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: 0830 is near the time of breakfast in a health care facility. Food reduces the absorption of iron. B: For best absorption and therapeutic effectiveness, the nurse should schedule ferrous fumarate (Feosol) at 1000. Iron preparations should be administered one hour before or two hours after a meal because food diminishes iron absorption. C: 1230 is near lunchtime in a health care facility. Food reduces the absorption of iron. D: 1730 is near the evening meal in a health care facility. Food reduces the absorption of iron.