Nokea
The nurse has an order to administer enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subcutaneously. When the automatic medication dispenser opens, however, the nurse finds enoxaparin 80 mg in the pocket. Which is the correct action by the nurse?
- A. notify the pharmacy to correct the error
- B. skip the morning dose of the medication
- C. call the health care provider for order clarification
- D. waste half of the enoxaparin and give the remaining 40 mg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the pharmacy (A) corrects the dispensing error safely. Skipping the dose (B) risks treatment failure, calling the provider (C) is unnecessary, and wasting half (D) is unsafe without proper dose verification.
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The mental health unit nurse is precepting a student nurse. Together they are caring for a client with schizophrenia. The nurse asks the student nurse to select the atypical antipsychotic from the client's medication list. The nurse anticipates the student nurse to select which medication?
- A. loxapine
- B. thioridazine
- C. risperidone
- D. haloperidol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic, effective for schizophrenia with fewer extrapyramidal side effects than typical antipsychotics like loxapine, thioridazine, and haloperidol.
The nurse is caring for a client with multiple IV medications. Which of the following drugs are compatible?
- A. vancomycin and heparin
- B. nitroglycerin and dopamine
- C. sodium bicarbonate and dobutamine
- D. furosemide (Lasix) and ondansetron (Zofran)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide and ondansetron are compatible for IV administration. Vancomycin/heparin, nitroglycerin/dopamine, and sodium bicarbonate/dobutamine have known incompatibilities due to pH or precipitation risks.
The charge nurse is working with a student nurse who reports that her assigned client has severe flushing of the upper body following an IV antibiotic infusion. The charge nurse understands that the antibiotic likely responsible for this 'red man syndrome' is which medication?
- A. cephalexin
- B. amoxicillin
- C. gentamicin
- D. vancomycin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin, when infused too rapidly, causes red man syndrome, characterized by flushing and erythema of the upper body.
The nurse is caring for a client who is taking bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for neurogenic bladder. Which of the following does the nurse understand is correct concerning this medication?
- A. This is the primary treatment for clients with a urinary obstruction.
- B. If the client cannot swallow pills, the medication may be given by the IV or IM route.
- C. Urecholine should be given with food to prevent nausea and vomiting.
- D. Atropine sulfate should be readily available when a client receives this medication.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bethanechol, a cholinergic, stimulates bladder contraction but can cause cholinergic crisis; atropine (D) reverses this. It's not for obstruction (A), only given PO (B), and taken on an empty stomach (C).