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The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment on a client being treated for an asthma attack. The nurse determines that the client's respiratory status is worsening based upon which finding?
- A. Loud wheezing
- B. Wheezing on expiration
- C. Noticeably diminished breath sounds
- D. Increased displays of emotional apprehension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Noticeably diminished breath sounds are an indication of severe obstruction and impending respiratory failure. Wheezing is not a reliable manifestation to determine the severity of an asthma attack. Clients with minor attacks may experience loud wheezes, whereas others with severe attacks may not wheeze. The client with severe asthma attacks may have no audible wheezing because of the decrease of airflow. For wheezing to occur, the client must be able to move sufficient air to produce breath sounds. Emotional apprehension is likely whatever the degree of respiratory distress being experienced.
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The nurse is assigned to care for a client experiencing hypertonic labor contractions. The nurse plans to conserve the client's energy and promote rest by performing which intervention?
- A. Keeping the TV or radio on to provide distraction
- B. Assisting the client with breathing and relaxation techniques
- C. Keeping the room brightly lit so the client can watch her monitor
- D. Avoiding uncomfortable procedures such as intravenous infusions or epidural anesthesia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Breathing and relaxation techniques aid the client in coping with the discomfort of labor and conserving energy. Noise from a TV or radio and light stimulation does not promote rest. A quiet, dim environment would be more advantageous. Intravenous or epidural pain relief can be useful. Intravenous hydration can increase perfusion and oxygenation of maternal and fetal tissues and provide glucose for energy needs.
The nurse inserts an indwelling Foley catheter into the bladder of a postoperative client who has not voided for 8 hours and has a distended bladder. After the tubing is secured and the collection bag is hung on the bed frame, the nurse notices that 900 mL of urine has drained into the collection bag. What is the appropriate nursing action for the safety of this client?
- A. Check the specific gravity of the urine.
- B. Clamp the tubing for 30 minutes and then release.
- C. Provide suprapubic pressure to maintain a steady flow of urine.
- D. Raise the collection bag high enough to slow the rate of drainage.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid emptying of a large volume of urine may cause engorgement of pelvic blood vessels and hypovolemic shock, prolapse of the bladder, or bladder spasms. Clamping the tubing for 30 minutes allows for equilibration to prevent complications. Option 1 is an assessment and would not affect the flow of urine or prevent possible hypovolemic shock. Option 3 would increase the flow of urine, which could lead to hypovolemic shock. Option 4 could cause backflow of urine. Infection is likely to develop if urine is allowed to flow back into the bladder.
A hospitalized client awaiting repair of an unruptured cerebral aneurysm is frequently assessed by the nurse. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as an early indication that the aneurysm has ruptured?
- A. Widened pulse pressure
- B. Unilateral motor weakness
- C. Unilateral slowing of pupil response
- D. A decline in the level of consciousness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm usually results in increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The first sign of pressure in the brain is a change in the level of consciousness. This change in consciousness can be as subtle as drowsiness or restlessness. Because centers that control blood pressure are located lower in the brain than those that control consciousness, blood pressure alteration is a later sign. Slowing of pupil response and motor weakness are also late signs.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining blunt chest trauma. Which is the earliest clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cyanosis with accompanying pallor
- B. Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
- C. Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
- D. Haziness or 'white-out' appearance of lungs on chest radiograph
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24 to 48 hours after an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases, tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical manifestations as the body compensates for mild hypoxemia through hyperventilation. Cyanosis and pallor are late findings and are the result of severe hypoxemia. Breath sounds in the early stages of ARDS are usually clear but then progress to diffuse crackles and rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Chest radiographic findings may be normal during the early stages but will show diffuse haziness or 'white-out' appearance in the later stages.
A client has been admitted with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. During history taking, the nurse should ask the client about a recent history of which event?
- A. Bleeding ulcer
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Deep vein thrombosis
- D. Streptococcal infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The predominant cause of acute glomerulonephritis is infection with beta-hemolytic Streptococcus 3 weeks before the onset of symptoms. In addition to bacteria, other infectious agents that could trigger the disorder include viruses, fungi, and parasites. Bleeding ulcer, myocardial infarction, and deep vein thrombosis are not precipitating causes.