The nurse plans care for a client requiring intravenous (IV) fluids and electrolytes understanding that which are findings that correlate with the need for this type of therapy? Select all that apply.
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Bounding pulse rate
- C. Chronic kidney disease
- D. Isolated syncope episodes
- E. Rapid, weak, and thready pulse
- F. Abnormal serum and urine osmolality levels
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: Abnormal assessment findings of major body systems offer clues to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid, weak, and thready pulse is an assessment abnormality found with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Abnormal serum and urine osmolality are laboratory tests that are helpful in identifying the presence of or risk of fluid imbalances. Isolated episodes of syncope are not indicators for intravenous therapy unless fluid and electrolyte imbalances are identified. A bounding pulse rate is a manifestation of fluid volume excess; therefore, IV fluids are not indicated. Clients with chronic kidney disease experience the inability of the kidneys to regulate the body's water balance; fluid restrictions may be used.
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A client who has sustained a neck injury is unresponsive and pulseless. What should the emergency department nurse do to open the client's airway?
- A. Insert oropharyngeal airway.
- B. Tilt the head and lift the chin.
- C. Place in the recovery position.
- D. Stabilize the skull and push up the jaw.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The health care team uses the jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway until a radiograph confirms that the client's cervical spine is stable to avoid potential aggravation of a cervical spine injury. Options 1 and 2 require manipulation of the spine to open the airway, and option 3 can be ineffective for opening the airway.
The nurse is reviewing the results of a sweat test performed on a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which finding should the nurse identify as supporting this diagnosis?
- A. An evening sweat potassium concentration greater than 60 mEq/L
- B. A sweat chloride concentration that is consistently greater 60 mEq/L
- C. An early morning sweat chloride concentration of less than 40 mEq/L
- D. A sweat potassium concentration that is consistently less than 40 mEq/L
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is a chronic multisystem disorder characterized by exocrine gland dysfunction. A consistent finding of abnormally high chloride concentrations in the sweat is a unique characteristic of CF. Normally the sweat chloride concentration is less than 40 mEq/L. A sweat chloride concentration greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF. Potassium concentration is unrelated to the sweat test.
The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. If the client's HCO3- is 30, which additional value is most likely to be noted in this client?
- A. pH 7.52
- B. pH 7.36
- C. pH 7.25
- D. pH 7.20
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Loss of gastric fluid via nasogastric suction or vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis because of the loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl), an acid secreted in the stomach. This occurs as HCO3 rises above normal. Thus, the loss of hydrogen ions in the HCl results in alkalosis. A pH above 7.45 would be noted.
A postterm infant, delivered vaginally, is exhibiting tachypnea, grunting, retractions, and nasal flaring. The nurse interprets that these assessment findings are indicative of which condition?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Respiratory distress syndrome
- C. Meconium aspiration syndrome
- D. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tachypnea, grunting, retractions, and nasal flaring are symptoms of respiratory distress related to meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS). MAS occurs often in postterm infants and develops when meconium in the amniotic fluid enters the lungs during fetal life or at birth. The symptoms noted in the question are unrelated to hypoglycemia. Respiratory distress syndrome is a complication of preterm infants. Transient tachypnea of the newborn is primarily found in infants delivered via cesarean section.
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a subclavian catheter suddenly develops dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Based on these findings, which is the best intervention for the nurse to implement for the client?
- A. Obtain a stat oxygen saturation level.
- B. Examine the insertion site for redness.
- C. Perform a stat finger-stick glucose level.
- D. Turn the client to the left side in Trendelenburg's position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clinical indicators of air embolism include chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, anxiety, feelings of impending doom, cyanosis, and hypotension. Positioning the client in Trendelenburg's and on the left side helps isolate the air embolism in the right atrium and prevents a thromboembolic event in a vital organ.