Nokea
The nurse is performing a prenatal examination on a client in the third trimester. The nurse begins an abdominal examination that includes Leopold maneuvers. What information should the nurse be able to determine after performing the assessment's first maneuver?
- A. Fetal descent
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Fetal lie and presentation
- D. Strength of uterine contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first maneuver, the fundal grip, determines the contents (size, consistency, shape, and mobility) of the fundus (either the fetal head or breech) and thereby the fetal lie. Fetal descent is determined with the fourth maneuver. Placenta previa is diagnosed by ultrasound and not by palpation. Leopold maneuvers are not performed during a contraction.
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The nurse assessing the apical heart rates of several different newborn infants notes that which heart rate is normal for this newborn population?
- A. 90 beats per minute
- B. 140 beats per minute
- C. 180 beats per minute
- D. 190 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The normal heart rate in a newborn infant is approximately 100 to 160 beats per minute. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. Option 1 indicates bradycardia, and options 3 and 4 indicate tachycardia (greater than 100 beats per minute).
The nurse is monitoring an unconscious client who sustained a head injury. Which observed positioning supports the suspicion that the client sustained an upper brainstem injury?
- A. Abnormal involuntary flexion of the extremities
- B. Abnormal involuntary extension of the extremities
- C. Upper extremity extension with lower extremity flexion
- D. Upper extremity flexion with lower extremity extension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decerebrate posturing, which can occur with upper brainstem injury, is characterized by abnormal involuntary extension of the extremities. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect descriptions of this type of posturing.
A primary health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of normal saline to infuse at 100 mL/hour. The drop factor is 10 drops/mL. The nurse should set the flow rate at how many drops per minute?
Correct Answer: 17
Rationale: It will take 10 hours for 1000 mL to infuse at 100 mL/hour (1000 mL ÷ 100 mL = 10 hour × 60 min = 600 min). Next, use the intravenous (IV) flow rate formula. Formula: Total volume × Drop factor ÷ Time in minutes. 1000 mL × 10 Drops/mL = 10,000 ÷ 600 min = 16.6, or 17 Drops/minute.
The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an adrenalectomy. The nurse plans to administer which medication in the preoperative period to prevent Addisonian crisis?
- A. Prednisone orally
- B. Fludrocortisone orally
- C. Spironolactone intramuscularly
- D. Methylprednisolone sodium succinate intravenously
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A glucocorticoid preparation will be administered intravenously or intramuscularly in the immediate preoperative period to a client scheduled for an adrenalectomy. Methylprednisolone sodium succinate protects the client from developing acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) that can occur as a result of the adrenalectomy. Prednisone is an oral corticosteroid. Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Graves' disease. On assessment, which manifestation related to the client's menstrual cycle should the nurse expect the client to report?
- A. Amenorrhea
- B. Menorrhagia
- C. Metrorrhagia
- D. Dysmenorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amenorrhea or a decreased menstrual flow is common in the client with Graves' disease. Menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and dysmenorrhea are also disorders related to the female reproductive system; however, they do not manifest in the presence of Graves' disease.