Nokea
A patient calls the clinic Monday morning. She had condomless sex Friday night and is interested in emergency contraception. What should the nurse tell this patient?
- A. Emergency contraception pills are very effective for medically induced abortions early in pregnancy.
- B. If she is not midcycle when she had sex, she does not need emergency contraception.
- C. It is too late for her to use emergency contraceptive pills, but she can come in for placement of a copper IUD.
- D. She can use emergency contraceptive pills, even if she has had other condomless sex since the Friday night event.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct advice for the patient in this scenario is to inform her that she can still use emergency contraceptive pills, even if she has had other condomless sex since the Friday night event. Emergency contraceptive pills are most effective when taken as soon as possible after unprotected sex, but they can still be used within a certain window of time depending on the type of pill used. It is important to inform the patient that she can take emergency contraception in this situation to reduce the risk of an unintended pregnancy.
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The nurse is educating an adolescent patient about Depo-Provera. Which statement should be included in this teaching session?
- A. You only need to come in every 5 months to get each injection.
- B. You may lose weight on this medication, so make sure to maintain a well-balanced diet.
- C. You may experience heavy bleeding or spotting monthly or none at all.
- D. You will not be able to start this medication until you have been pregnant at least once.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Depo-Provera can cause irregular bleeding patterns, including spotting or no bleeding at all. Choice A is incorrect because Depo-Provera needs to be administered every 3 months, not every 5 months. Choice B is incorrect as weight gain is more commonly associated with Depo-Provera, not weight loss. Choice D is incorrect as Depo-Provera can be used regardless of whether the woman has been pregnant before.
A patient who has an LNG-IUC in place calls the office and states she just took a pregnancy test, and it is positive. She comes in for a visit, and the nurse does another pregnancy test, which is positive. What does the nurse know that the clinician will inform the patient regarding the IUC?
- A. Removing the IUC may increase the chance of infertility.
- B. The fetus is at risk for congenital defects.
- C. The IUC needs to be removed regardless of the plans for this pregnancy.
- D. There is no risk to the fetus if the IUC is left in place.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse knows that the clinician will inform the patient regarding the LNG-IUC is that there is no risk to the fetus if the IUC is left in place. The LNG-IUC (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) is a highly effective form of contraception that works by releasing progesterone locally in the uterus. The hormonal effect of the LNG-IUC is mostly limited to the uterus and very little of it circulates systemically. Therefore, there is no known increased risk of congenital defects or harm to the fetus if the IUC is left in place during pregnancy. The IUC can be left in place if the patient chooses to continue the pregnancy, provided there are no signs of infection or other complications that would necessitate its removal.
The nurse provides education regarding female sterilization. What important information is provided?
- A. “You will need to wait 3 months before you are sterile.â€
- B. “You can have this procedure in the hospital after you give birth.â€
- C. “Fertilization will affect your milk supply for breast-feeding.â€
- D. “Tubal ligation is reversible.â€
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The important information provided regarding female sterilization is that tubal ligation, which is a form of female sterilization, is generally considered irreversible. This means that it is a permanent method of contraception and should not be relied upon as a temporary solution. It is important for individuals considering this procedure to understand that it is meant to be permanent and should be approached as such. If there is any consideration for future fertility, alternative contraceptive options should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
What is an advantage of the cervical cap over the diaphragm?
- A. a lower failure rate
- B. its ease of insertion
- C. that it can remain in place for 48 hours
- D. that spermicide is not needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The advantage of the cervical cap over the diaphragm is that it typically has a lower failure rate in preventing pregnancy. Failure rates for contraceptive methods refer to the percentage of women who become pregnant within the first year of typical use. The cervical cap is generally associated with a lower failure rate compared to the diaphragm due to its snugger fit and ability to cover the cervix more effectively, resulting in better protection against sperm entering the uterus. This makes the cervical cap a more reliable option for women seeking effective contraception.
The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 1?
- A. There is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method.
- B. There is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used.
- C. There is a risk that outweighs the advantages of the contraceptive method.
- D. There is an advantage of using a contraceptive method that outweighs any risk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of medical eligibility for contraceptive use, an MEC (Medical Eligibility Criteria) score of 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for using the particular contraceptive method. A score of 1 suggests that the advantages of using the contraceptive method outweigh any potential risks, making it a safe and recommended choice for the patient. Therefore, a patient with an MEC score of 1 can use the contraceptive method without any concerns regarding health risks or restrictions.