What is the difference between the amounts that were budgeted for specific revenue or cost and the actual revenue or cost that resulted during the course of activities?
- A. Budget
- B. Variable
- C. Variance
- D. Premiums
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Variance. Variance represents the difference between budgeted and actual revenue or cost. It is a crucial metric in performance evaluation and budget control. Variance analysis helps identify discrepancies and allows for adjustments to be made.
Incorrect choices:
A: Budget - This is the overall plan or financial blueprint for revenues and costs, not the difference between budgeted and actual amounts.
B: Variable - Refers to costs that change in relation to activity levels, not specifically the difference between budgeted and actual amounts.
D: Premiums - Relates to additional payments made, not the comparison between budgeted and actual figures.
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A unit manager has been working to decrease the incidence of catheter-associated urinary tract infections on his unit, spending extra time on the unit researching best practices and conducting training. Having completed training, the manager decides to take a couple of days off. Which of the following leadership traits is this unit manager displaying?
- A. Perseverance
- B. Balance
- C. Generosity
- D. Ability to handle stress
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Balance. This unit manager is displaying the leadership trait of balance by recognizing the importance of taking time off after working hard to improve the unit's performance. This demonstrates an understanding of self-care and the need to maintain a healthy work-life balance. It shows that the manager values personal well-being and is able to prioritize both work responsibilities and personal needs.
Choice A: Perseverance is not the best fit here as the situation does not involve overcoming obstacles or persisting through challenges.
Choice C: Generosity is not relevant to the scenario as there is no indication of the manager being generous.
Choice D: Ability to handle stress is also not the most appropriate choice as the scenario does not directly involve stress management.
A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Blood pressure 144/82 mm Hg
- B. Urine specific gravity 1.03
- C. Neck vein distention
- D. Urine specific gravity 1.01
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The elevated blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg indicates dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhea, leading to hypovolemia. This is a compensatory mechanism by the body to maintain perfusion. Option B, urine specific gravity of 1.03, indicates concentrated urine and dehydration, but not as specific as elevated blood pressure. Option C, neck vein distention, is more indicative of heart failure or fluid overload rather than dehydration. Option D, urine specific gravity of 1.01, indicates diluted urine and is not consistent with dehydration. Therefore, based on the symptoms and the compensatory mechanism of the body, an elevated blood pressure is the most likely finding in a client with vomiting and diarrhea.
What is the primary advantage of utilizing a modular nursing model?
- A. Improved patient satisfaction
- B. Enhanced teamwork
- C. Cost reduction
- D. Improved communication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary advantage of utilizing a modular nursing model is enhanced teamwork. This is because modular nursing promotes collaboration among healthcare professionals, leading to better coordination of care and improved patient outcomes. It allows for flexibility and efficiency in assigning roles and responsibilities based on individual strengths and expertise. Improved teamwork fosters effective communication, enhances job satisfaction, and ultimately benefits patient care. Patient satisfaction, cost reduction, and communication are important aspects but not the primary advantage of a modular nursing model.
One of the most useful tools to determine reasons for turnover is:
- A. Questioning.
- B. Surveys.
- C. Employee forums.
- D. Telephone calls.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Surveys. Surveys are structured tools that allow for systematic collection of feedback from employees, providing quantitative and qualitative data on reasons for turnover. They offer anonymity, encouraging honest responses. Questioning (choice A) may not provide a comprehensive view, as it relies on informal conversations. Employee forums (choice C) may not capture individual perspectives effectively. Telephone calls (choice D) are not scalable for large organizations and lack the anonymity of surveys. In summary, surveys are the most effective tool for gathering in-depth insights into reasons for turnover.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?
- A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
- C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
- D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
1. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of drugs, which works by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin.
2. This action helps to lower blood glucose levels in patients with type 2 diabetes.
3. By increasing insulin secretion, glyburide helps improve glucose utilization in the body.
Incorrect choices:
A: Glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion from the pancreas; it primarily affects insulin production.
C: Glyburide should not be taken if the morning blood glucose level is low to prevent hypoglycemia.
D: Glyburide does not have a specific interaction with IV contrast media; caution is needed with other medications that may interact.