Nokea
Which of the following is the most suitable anti malarial drug for pregnant women?
- A. Atovaquone and proguanil
- B. Quinine and doxycycline
- C. Quinine and clindamycin
- D. Primaquine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine and clindamycin. Quinine is recommended for pregnant women due to its safety profile in pregnancy. Clindamycin is often used in combination with quinine to treat malaria during pregnancy.
A: Atovaquone and proguanil are not recommended for pregnant women due to limited safety data.
B: Quinine and doxycycline should be avoided in pregnancy as doxycycline can harm the fetus.
D: Primaquine is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
In summary, the combination of quinine and clindamycin is the most suitable anti-malarial drug for pregnant women due to their safety profiles and efficacy in treating malaria without harming the fetus.
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The nurse notes that a patient's gaping wound is developing a blood clot. Which body substance is responsible for this clot formation?
- A. Plasma
- B. Platelets
- C. Red blood cells
- D. White blood cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Platelets are responsible for clot formation in the body. When a wound occurs, platelets adhere to the site and release chemicals to initiate clotting. They then aggregate to form a plug, stopping bleeding. Plasma carries platelets but is not directly involved in clot formation. Red blood cells transport oxygen but do not participate in clotting. White blood cells are part of the immune system and do not play a role in clot formation. Therefore, platelets are the correct choice for clot formation in this scenario.
Busulfan therapy lead to all except:
- A. hyperpigmentation
- B. pulm .Fibrosis
- C. optic neuritis
- D. BM suppression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: optic neuritis. Busulfan therapy is known to cause adverse effects such as hyperpigmentation, pulmonary fibrosis, and bone marrow suppression due to its cytotoxic effects. However, optic neuritis is not a reported side effect of busulfan therapy. Optic neuritis is more commonly associated with other medications or conditions affecting the optic nerve. Therefore, the absence of optic neuritis as a known side effect of busulfan therapy makes choice C the correct answer.
A patient with a bleeding disorder is prescribed an infusion of plasma. What should the nurse explain as being the purpose of this infusion?
- A. Contains clotting factors
- B. Carries oxygen to the tissues
- C. Supports cellular metabolism
- D. Removes waste products from cells
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contains clotting factors. Plasma contains essential clotting factors like fibrinogen, Factor VIII, and others that are necessary for blood clotting in patients with bleeding disorders. This infusion helps improve the patient's ability to form blood clots and control bleeding.
B: Plasma does not carry oxygen to tissues; that is the role of red blood cells.
C: Plasma does not directly support cellular metabolism; that is the function of nutrients.
D: Plasma does not remove waste products from cells; that is the role of the kidneys and liver.
A patient reports severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Assessment reveals a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) and pulse of 82 beats/min. Results of a complete blood count reveal lower than normal segmented and banded neutrophils and higher than normal lymphocytes. Which type of infection does the nurse suspect this patient is most likely experiencing?
- A. Viral
- B. Fungal
- C. Parasitic
- D. Bacterial
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Viral. The patient's symptoms (abdominal cramping, diarrhea, fever) are consistent with a viral infection, such as gastroenteritis. The lower segmented and banded neutrophils indicate a viral infection, as viruses often target lymphocytes. The higher lymphocyte count is a characteristic response to viral infections. Other choices are incorrect as fungal, parasitic, and bacterial infections typically present with different symptoms and laboratory findings.
A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patient's needs for physical activity?
- A. Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise.
- B. Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated.
- C. Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises.
- D. Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assisting the patient to a chair during awake times allows for gradual physical activity, promoting mobility without overwhelming the patient. This option supports the patient's need for movement while considering their current level of fatigue.
A is incorrect because educating the patient about the benefits of exercise may not be feasible or appropriate given the patient's current fatigue levels.
C is incorrect as stair exercises may be too strenuous for a patient experiencing debilitating fatigue, potentially leading to further exhaustion and risk of injury.
D is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing exercises primarily focus on respiratory health and may not directly address the patient's need for physical activity to combat fatigue.