ATI Pediatrics Proctored Test

ATI Pediatrics Proctored Test Related

Review ATI Pediatrics Proctored Test related questions and content

You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

  • A. gravida 2, para 1.
  • B. gravida 2, para 0.
  • C. gravida 1, para 1.
  • D. gravida 0, para 2.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

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When is a newborn considered premature?

  • A. Weighs less than 6.5 pounds.
  • B. Is born to a heroin-addicted mother.
  • C. Is born before 37 weeks gestation.
  • D. Has meconium in or around its mouth.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A newborn is considered premature if it is born before 37 weeks gestation. Premature birth increases the risk of various health problems as the baby may not be fully developed. Choice A is incorrect because the weight alone does not determine prematurity. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to a specific situation but not a direct indicator of prematurity. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of meconium does not solely indicate prematurity.

What is the main function of the uterus?

  • A. Dilate and expel the baby from the cervix.
  • B. House the fetus as it grows for 40 weeks.
  • C. Provide a cushion and protect the fetus from infection.
  • D. Provide oxygen and other nutrients to the fetus.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The main function of the uterus is to house and nurture the growing fetus for approximately 40 weeks during pregnancy. It provides the necessary environment for the fetus to develop and grow until it is ready for birth. Choice A is incorrect as the cervix, not the uterus, dilates during labor to allow the baby to pass through. Choice C is incorrect as while the uterus does provide a protective environment, its primary function is not to act as a cushion. Choice D is incorrect as the placenta, not the uterus, is responsible for providing oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.

A 30-year-old woman has severe lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. She tells you that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. On the basis of these findings, you should suspect:

  • A. a normal pregnancy.
  • B. a ruptured ovarian cyst.
  • C. an ectopic pregnancy.
  • D. a spontaneous abortion.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Severe lower abdominal pain, light vaginal bleeding, and a history of missed periods are concerning for an ectopic pregnancy. The absence of a normal menstrual period along with these symptoms raises suspicion for an ectopic pregnancy, which requires immediate medical attention due to the risk of rupture and life-threatening complications. A normal pregnancy would typically present with different symptoms such as a positive pregnancy test and typical signs of early pregnancy. A ruptured ovarian cyst may present with similar symptoms but typically lacks the history of missed periods. A spontaneous abortion usually involves heavier bleeding and tissue passage, which is not described in this scenario.

You and your partner are performing CPR on a 2-year-old female in cardiac arrest. During your resuscitation attempt, you should:

  • A. hyperventilate her due to severe hypoxia.
  • B. attach the AED pads after 5 minutes of high-quality CPR.
  • C. perform compressions and ventilations at a ratio of 30:2.
  • D. allow the chest to fully recoil between compressions.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is crucial during CPR to ensure proper blood flow. This action allows the heart to refill with blood, enhancing the effectiveness of compressions and circulation. Hyperventilating the patient can lead to decreased cardiac output and is not recommended. Attaching AED pads should be done as soon as possible in a pediatric cardiac arrest situation, ideally within 2 minutes. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR is 30:2, focusing on high-quality compressions to provide adequate perfusion to vital organs.

When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask?

  • A. When did you first notice the symptoms?
  • B. Do you have a history of high blood pressure?
  • C. What medications do you take and why?
  • D. Have you previously had a heart attack?
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask when assessing a geriatric patient who may have experienced an acute ischemic stroke is when the symptoms were first noticed. This information is crucial for determining the time window for potential treatments like thrombolytic therapy, as prompt intervention is necessary for stroke management. Option B is not as relevant in the acute assessment of stroke, though important for overall health history. Option C is important but may not be as time-sensitive as determining symptom onset. Option D focuses on a different cardiac event, not directly related to the current concern of a possible stroke.

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