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A category 5 tornado occurred in a community of 400 people. Many homes and businesses were destroye In the 2 years following the disaster, 140 individuals were diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which term best applies to these newly diagnosed cases?
- A. Prevalence
- B. Comorbidity
- C. Incidence
- D. Parity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The term that best applies to the newly diagnosed cases of PTSD is "Incidence" (Choice C). Incidence refers to the rate of new cases of a disease within a specific population over a defined period. In this case, the 140 individuals newly diagnosed with PTSD in the 2 years following the tornado represent the occurrence of new cases within the community of 400 people. This term specifically addresses the number of new cases arising from a particular event or exposure.
Summary:
A: Prevalence refers to the total number of cases (new and existing) within a population at a specific point in time.
B: Comorbidity refers to the presence of two or more conditions in an individual at the same time.
D: Parity refers to equality or equivalence, which is not relevant to the context of new PTSD diagnoses post-tornado.
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A patient states, "I'm not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up." Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority?
- A. Self-esteem–building activities
- B. Anxiety self-control measures
- C. Sleep enhancement activities
- D. Suicide precautions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suicide precautions. The patient's statement indicates suicidal ideation and intent. Priority is to ensure immediate safety. Suicide precautions involve continuous monitoring, removing harmful objects, and providing a safe environment. A: Self-esteem activities, B: Anxiety measures, and C: Sleep enhancement are important, but not the priority when a patient is at risk of self-harm.
As a nurse working in obstetrics, what is one way to mitigate possible causes of intellectual disability?
- A. Explain to the parent the treatment options available.
- B. Explain to the parent environmental risks to avoid during pregnancy.
- C. Explain to the parent that genetics have a role in this disability.
- D. Explain to the parent that learning disabilities often go unnoticed until the child enters school.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding environmental risks during pregnancy can help mitigate possible causes of intellectual disability. Environmental factors such as exposure to toxins, infections, and poor nutrition can have a significant impact on fetal brain development. By educating parents about these risks, nurses can empower them to make informed choices to protect their baby's cognitive development.
Choice A is incorrect because treatment options are not preventive measures to avoid intellectual disability.
Choice C is incorrect because while genetics can play a role in intellectual disability, it is not something parents can actively mitigate during pregnancy.
Choice D is incorrect because learning disabilities are different from intellectual disabilities, and addressing them at school age is not a preventive measure during pregnancy.
A nurse on an acute med-surgical unit is performing assessments on a group of clients. Which is the highest priority?
- A. The client has surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign.
- B. A client who has Clostridium difficile with acute diarrhea
- C. A client who is experiencing acute kidney injury and has urine with a low specific gravity
- D. The client who has oral cancer and reports a sore on his gums
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign indicates a potential life-threatening condition due to hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures and tetany. This client needs immediate intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while Clostridium difficile with acute diarrhea requires prompt treatment, it is not as immediately life-threatening as hypocalcemia. Choice C is incorrect as well, as although acute kidney injury is serious, a low specific gravity alone does not necessarily indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Choice D is also incorrect as oral cancer with a sore on the gums, while concerning, is not an immediate priority compared to the potential life-threatening complications of hypocalcemia.
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric setting. During the acute phase of mania, which medication would the nurse expect to most likely administer?
- A. Lithium carbonate (Lithium)
- B. Haloperidol lactate (Haldol)
- C. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haloperidol lactate (Haldol). In the acute phase of mania, antipsychotic medications like haloperidol are commonly used to manage symptoms such as agitation, hyperactivity, and psychosis. Haloperidol helps to reduce dopamine activity in the brain, which can help stabilize mood and behavior during manic episodes. Lithium (A) is more commonly used for long-term mood stabilization in bipolar disorder. Fluoxetine (C) and Paroxetine (D) are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) used for depression and not recommended during mania due to the risk of worsening manic symptoms.
A nurse engaged in an interaction with a patient recognizes body space zones. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the individual's personal zone?
- A. Beginning at the boundary of the intimate zone and ending at the social zone
- B. Extending outward from the border to the public zone
- C. Surrounding and protecting an individual from others, especially outsiders
- D. The most distant boundary that can be used for recognizing intruders
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the personal zone is the space ranging from 18 inches to 4 feet from an individual, which falls between the intimate zone (0-18 inches) and the social zone (4-12 feet). This zone is where most interactions with acquaintances occur.
Choice B is incorrect because the public zone extends beyond the social zone and is typically used for public speaking or formal presentations.
Choice C is incorrect because it describes the concept of a protective or defensive space, not the personal zone.
Choice D is incorrect because the concept of recognizing intruders pertains more to territoriality and is not specific to identifying personal space zones.