Nokea
During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
- A. Sternal notch
- B. Nipple line
- C. Xiphoid process
- D. Fifth intercostal space
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements.
Rationale:
A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals.
C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose.
D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.
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A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
- A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
- B. 3+ protein in the urine
- C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Deep tendon reflexes of +1. In preeclampsia, deep tendon reflexes are typically hyperactive, not diminished (+1). This indicates hyporeflexia, which is inconsistent with preeclampsia. A is consistent with preeclampsia, as mild edema is common. B is also consistent, as proteinuria is a hallmark sign. C is consistent, as elevated blood pressure is a key feature. Therefore, D is the only choice that does not align with the expected findings in preeclampsia.
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
- B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- D. Slow the client's breathing rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin. Decelerations starting at the peak of contractions indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by hyperstimulation from oxytocin. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help alleviate this issue and improve fetal oxygenation. Choice A would not address the underlying cause of the decelerations. Choice C would worsen the hyperstimulation. Choice D is not directly related to the fetal heart rate decelerations.
A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?
- A. Chvostek's sign
- B. Cullen's sign
- C. Chadwick's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cullen's sign. Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis, indicating blood in the peritoneum due to internal bleeding from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign (choice A) is related to facial muscle spasm due to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign (choice C) is bluish discoloration of the cervix indicating pregnancy. Goodell's sign (choice D) is softening of the cervix in early pregnancy. These signs are not indicative of blood in the peritoneum like Cullen's sign is.
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. Quickening typically happens around 18-20 weeks, which falls between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. During this time, the fetus's movements become more pronounced and can be felt by the pregnant person. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not occur in the last trimester, end of the first trimester, or when the uterus rises out of the pelvis. These options do not align with the typical timing of quickening in pregnancy.
A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.