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During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension due to vasodilation and sympathetic blockade, resulting in decreased blood pressure. This is a common complication that nurses should monitor for and manage promptly. Vomiting (A) is not a direct complication of epidural anesthesia. Tachycardia (B) is not typically associated with epidural anesthesia but may indicate other issues. Respiratory depression (C) is more commonly seen with opioids and not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia.
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A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?
- A. Palpate the client's uterine fundus.
- B. Assist the client to a bedpan to urinate.
- C. Prepare to administer oxytocic medication.
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpate the client's uterine fundus. Palpating the uterine fundus is crucial to assess for uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. If the fundus is boggy or deviated, it indicates uterine atony and immediate interventions are needed.
B: Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate is important, but addressing the potential cause of excessive bleeding takes precedence.
C: Administering oxytocic medication may be necessary to help stimulate uterine contractions, but assessing the fundus comes first to determine the underlying cause of bleeding.
D: Increasing fluid intake is not the priority in this situation. Palpating the fundus and addressing potential hemorrhage are the immediate concerns.
A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
- A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
- B. Biophysical profile score of 8
- C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
- D. Reactive nonstress test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1. This ratio indicates fetal lung maturity as it signifies adequate production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, essential for proper lung function after birth. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (Choice A) indicates immaturity, Biophysical profile score of 8 (Choice B) assesses overall fetal well-being, not lung maturity, and Reactive nonstress test (Choice D) evaluates fetal well-being, not lung maturity. The L/S ratio of 2:1 is the most reliable indicator of fetal lung maturity.
A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
- A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
- B. 3+ protein in the urine
- C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Deep tendon reflexes of +1. In preeclampsia, deep tendon reflexes are typically hyperactive, not diminished (+1). This indicates hyporeflexia, which is inconsistent with preeclampsia. A is consistent with preeclampsia, as mild edema is common. B is also consistent, as proteinuria is a hallmark sign. C is consistent, as elevated blood pressure is a key feature. Therefore, D is the only choice that does not align with the expected findings in preeclampsia.
A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
- A. It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds.
- B. The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.
- C. A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you.
- D. A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (15 to 25 pounds) because this recommendation aligns with the guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy for a client with a BMI of 26.5. The Institute of Medicine recommends this weight gain range for individuals in the overweight category. It is important to strike a balance between gaining enough weight to support the health of the fetus and not gaining excess weight that may lead to complications.
Choice A (11 to 20 pounds) may not provide enough weight gain for optimal pregnancy outcomes, while choice C (25 to 35 pounds) may lead to excessive weight gain. Choice D (1 pound per week) is too specific and does not account for individual variations in weight gain patterns during pregnancy. It is crucial to tailor weight gain recommendations based on the client's BMI to ensure a healthy pregnancy.
A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
- B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
- C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
- D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction. This is important to assess the fetal well-being and baseline status before initiating epidural analgesia. It helps in detecting any fetal distress or abnormalities that may be exacerbated by the epidural.
A: Having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not recommended as it may interfere with the procedure and comfort of the client.
B: Administering a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not directly related to preparing for epidural analgesia.
C: Informing the client about the duration of anesthetic effect is important, but ensuring fetal well-being through EFM monitoring is a priority before the procedure.