Nokea
After an amniotomy, what is the priority nursing action?
- A. Observe color and consistency of fluid
- B. Assess the fetal heart rate pattern
- C. Assess the client's temperature
- D. Evaluate the client for the presence of chills and increased uterine tenderness using palpation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the fetal heart rate pattern. After an amniotomy (breaking of the water), the priority is to monitor the fetal well-being to ensure the baby is tolerating the procedure well. Assessing the fetal heart rate pattern helps the nurse determine if the baby is experiencing any distress or changes in oxygenation. This immediate assessment is crucial in identifying any potential complications and taking prompt action.
Observing the color and consistency of fluid (A) is important but not as immediate as assessing the fetal heart rate. Assessing the client's temperature (C) and evaluating for chills and increased uterine tenderness (D) are important but do not address the immediate concern of fetal well-being post-amniotomy.
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A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
- A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
- B. 3+ protein in the urine
- C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Deep tendon reflexes of +1. In preeclampsia, deep tendon reflexes are typically hyperactive, not diminished (+1). This indicates hyporeflexia, which is inconsistent with preeclampsia. A is consistent with preeclampsia, as mild edema is common. B is also consistent, as proteinuria is a hallmark sign. C is consistent, as elevated blood pressure is a key feature. Therefore, D is the only choice that does not align with the expected findings in preeclampsia.
During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension due to vasodilation and sympathetic blockade, resulting in decreased blood pressure. This is a common complication that nurses should monitor for and manage promptly. Vomiting (A) is not a direct complication of epidural anesthesia. Tachycardia (B) is not typically associated with epidural anesthesia but may indicate other issues. Respiratory depression (C) is more commonly seen with opioids and not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia.
A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
- A. Respiratory distress
- B. Hypothermia
- C. Accidental lacerations
- D. Acrocyanosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. This is the priority assessment because a newborn's ability to breathe is crucial for survival. Immediate evaluation of respiratory status is essential to ensure the baby is receiving adequate oxygenation. Hypothermia (choice B) can be addressed after addressing any respiratory issues. Accidental lacerations (choice C) are important but not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Acrocyanosis (choice D) is a common finding in newborns and does not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Increase the frequency of fundal massage.
- C. Encourage the client to empty their bladder.
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Lochia rubra and small clots are expected postpartum.
2. The firm, midline fundus indicates normal involution.
3. No signs of excessive bleeding or fundus displacement.
4. Documenting and monitoring is appropriate for normal postpartum assessment.
Summary:
A: Not necessary as no complications present.
B: Unnecessary and could cause discomfort.
C: Bladder emptying may help fundal position but not urgent.
D: Correct option for normal postpartum assessment and monitoring.
A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours.
- B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
- C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid.
- D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. This is the appropriate nursing action because the woman is at risk for chorioamnionitis due to the elevated temperature and ruptured membranes. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help in identifying signs of infection, as foul-smelling amniotic fluid may indicate chorioamnionitis. This can guide further interventions and management, such as initiating antibiotics.
Choice A is incorrect as waiting 4 hours to recheck the temperature can delay necessary interventions for potential infection. Choice B is also incorrect as administering glucocorticoids is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not warranted solely based on the client's temperature and ruptured membranes without further assessment for infection.