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The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.
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A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase potassium intake in the diet.
- C. Weigh yourself daily.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh oneself daily. This instruction is important as daily weights help monitor fluid loss and are crucial for detecting early signs of fluid imbalance when taking a diuretic. Weighing daily allows for timely adjustments in treatment and helps prevent complications associated with fluid imbalance. Choice A is not directly related to the client's need for monitoring fluid balance. Choice B, although important for some diuretics, is not specific to thiazide diuretics. Choice D is not appropriate as limiting fluid intake without proper monitoring can lead to dehydration, especially when taking diuretics.
The nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the unit after undergoing a cardiac catheterization. The nurse should monitor for which common complication following this procedure?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hemorrhage
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Following a cardiac catheterization, a common complication to monitor for is bleeding or hemorrhage at the catheter insertion site. Hemorrhage is a significant concern due to the potential for rapid blood loss, leading to hypovolemic shock and other serious complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as swelling, hematoma, or drop in hemoglobin levels, is crucial for timely intervention. Hypertension is not a common complication post-cardiac catheterization; instead, hypotension may occur due to vasovagal response or bleeding. Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with cardiac catheterization unless the client has pre-existing diabetes or stress-induced hyperglycemia.
The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
- B. Increased urination at night
- C. Mild shortness of breath on exertion
- D. Decreased appetite and fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.
The healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching for a client who is starting statin therapy. Which dietary advice should the healthcare provider give?
- A. Eat more whole grains.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice.
- D. Increase intake of dairy products.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. Grapefruit and grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. It is crucial for clients on statin therapy to avoid grapefruit products to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the metabolism or effectiveness of statin therapy.