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When caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy, why is a low-protein diet recommended by the nurse?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Increased ammonia levels
- D. Electrolyte imbalance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia into urea, leading to increased ammonia levels in the blood. A low-protein diet helps reduce ammonia production in the gut, thereby decreasing ammonia levels in the blood and improving symptoms. Hyperglycemia (A) and hypoglycemia (B) are not directly related to the rationale for a low-protein diet in hepatic encephalopathy. Electrolyte imbalance (D) is not specifically addressed by a low-protein diet in this context.
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Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?
- A. To prevent fluid overload
- B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
- C. To maintain electrolyte balance
- D. To prevent hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To reduce nitrogenous waste. In renal failure, the kidneys cannot effectively filter waste products like urea and creatinine, leading to their accumulation in the blood. A low-protein diet reduces the production of these nitrogenous wastes, lessening the burden on the kidneys.
A low-protein diet does not directly prevent fluid overload (A), maintain electrolyte balance (C), or prevent hyperglycemia (D) in renal failure. These functions are typically managed through other dietary modifications and treatments specific to each condition.
In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C, hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in CKD patients with anemia. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps assess the effectiveness of the therapy in improving anemia. If hemoglobin levels increase, it indicates the therapy is working.
Summary of incorrect choices:
A: Serum creatinine - This measures kidney function, not the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for anemia in CKD patients.
B: White blood cell count - Monitors immune function, not related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia.
D: Serum potassium - Important for monitoring electrolyte balance in CKD patients but not specific to assessing erythropoietin therapy effectiveness.
What instruction should a patient with a history of hypertension be provided when being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Monitor weight daily.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C is correct because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid retention, leading to weight gain, which may indicate worsening heart failure or hypertension. Daily weight monitoring helps detect fluid retention early, enabling timely intervention.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary.
B: Incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is preferred to prevent nocturia and sleep disturbances.
D: Incorrect. Fluid intake should not be limited unless advised by a healthcare provider to prevent dehydration.
Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?
- A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
- B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
- C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
- D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because stopping warfarin one week before surgery reduces the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect can persist for several days, so stopping it earlier allows time for its effects to diminish. Choice A is incorrect because continuing warfarin until the day of surgery increases bleeding risk. Choice B is incorrect as stopping warfarin only three days before surgery may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is not a suitable substitute for warfarin in most cases.
A client who is 2 days postoperative reports severe pain and swelling in the right leg. The nurse notes that the leg is warm and red. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
- B. Elevate the leg on pillows.
- C. Measure the circumference of the leg.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is the priority action because the client is experiencing severe pain, swelling, warmth, and redness in the leg, which are signs of potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or other serious complications postoperatively. The healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly to assess and initiate appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
A: Applying a warm compress may worsen the condition if it is DVT, as heat can promote clot formation.
B: Elevating the leg on pillows may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms and delay necessary intervention.
C: Measuring the circumference of the leg may provide some information, but it is not as urgent as notifying the healthcare provider for immediate assessment and intervention.