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A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High Fowler's. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing efficiency by maximizing chest expansion. Sitting upright reduces pressure on the diaphragm, allowing for better ventilation. Supine (A) position can worsen dyspnea by restricting lung expansion. Prone (B) position is not ideal for COPD patients as it can hinder breathing. Trendelenburg (D) position, where the patient's feet are elevated above the head, can increase pressure on the diaphragm and impair breathing, making it inappropriate for a patient experiencing severe dyspnea.
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When providing dietary instructions to a client with cirrhosis, which dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize?
- A. Low-protein diet
- B. Low-sodium diet
- C. High-fiber diet
- D. High-calcium diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Correct answer is B (Low-sodium diet) for cirrhosis because sodium can worsen fluid retention and increase ascites. A (Low-protein diet) is not necessary unless hepatic encephalopathy is present. C (High-fiber diet) can help with constipation but not a primary concern. D (High-calcium diet) is not a priority for cirrhosis management.
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
- B. Give oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer regular insulin intravenously. In DKA, the priority is to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis. Regular insulin intravenously is the fastest way to reduce blood glucose levels. Oral hypoglycemic agents (B) are not effective in DKA. Sodium bicarbonate (C) is not routinely recommended in DKA as it may worsen acidosis. Providing a high-calorie diet (D) is not appropriate as the focus should be on treating the underlying condition first.
During an assessment, a healthcare professional suspects a client has cholecystitis. What is a common symptom of this condition?
- A. Right upper quadrant pain
- B. Left lower quadrant pain
- C. Generalized abdominal pain
- D. Epigastric pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right upper quadrant pain. Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, typically caused by gallstones. The gallbladder is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is a common symptom. The pain may also radiate to the back or right shoulder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not typically align with the specific location of the gallbladder or the characteristic pain associated with cholecystitis.
What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol act by stimulating beta2 receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation and relieving bronchospasm. This helps to quickly open up the airways during an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A is incorrect because SABAs do not directly reduce inflammation. Choice C is incorrect as SABAs do not affect respiratory secretions. Choice D is incorrect as SABAs do not suppress cough but rather target bronchospasm.
A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
- B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
- C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
- D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct:
1. Tis refers to carcinoma in situ, meaning the cancer is limited to the surface layer of cells in the cervix.
2. N0 indicates no regional lymph node involvement.
3. M0 indicates no distant metastasis.
4. Therefore, the cancer is localized only to the cervix, making answer A correct.
Summary:
B: Incorrect - Does not address the staging information provided in Tis, N0, M0.
C: Incorrect - The staging information is already provided, and further testing may not be necessary at this stage.
D: Incorrect - Staging information does not indicate difficulty in determining the original site of the cancer.