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A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
- B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
- C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because sitting with the client and offering support without demanding participation is crucial in building trust and rapport. This approach respects the client's autonomy and allows them to feel supported without pressure. It also creates a safe space for the client to open up when they are ready.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Offering high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals does not address the core issue of the client's refusal to participate in therapy.
B: Asking the client why they are not participating in therapy may come off as confrontational and could further discourage them from opening up.
D: Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness may be overwhelming for them at this stage and could lead to resistance.
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What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
- B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
- D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment. This is crucial to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation, which can cause tissue damage if the chemotherapy leaks into the surrounding tissues. By monitoring the IV site hourly, the healthcare provider can detect any signs of infiltration or extravasation early and take necessary actions to prevent further harm.
A: Administering an antiemetic before starting chemotherapy is unrelated to preventing vesicant extravasation.
B: Instructing the client to drink plenty of fluids does not directly address the risk of vesicant extravasation.
C: Keeping the head of the bed elevated is not specific to preventing vesicant extravasation and may not effectively reduce the risk.
A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
- B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
- C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a non-confrontational and calming approach to de-escalate the situation. It helps redirect the client's focus and encourages self-regulation. Choice A may reinforce the aggressive behavior by rewarding it. Choice B (putting behavior on extinction) may escalate the situation further. Choice C (decreasing TV volume) does not address the client's behavior directly.
A client who has Type 1 diabetes and is at 10-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of a headache, nausea, sweating, feeling shaky, and being tired all the time. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the blood glucose level.
- B. Draw blood for a Hemoglobin A1C.
- C. Assess urine for ketone levels.
- D. Provide the client with a protein snack.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the blood glucose level. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is presenting with symptoms of hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening for a pregnant woman with Type 1 diabetes. By checking the blood glucose level, the nurse can determine if the client's symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and take appropriate action. Drawing blood for a Hemoglobin A1C (choice B) is not the first priority in this acute situation. Assessing urine for ketone levels (choice C) is important in managing diabetes but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of hypoglycemia. Providing the client with a protein snack (choice D) may help raise blood sugar levels, but checking the blood glucose level is essential to determine the appropriate intervention.
An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
- C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
- D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam. This option is correct because the client's symptoms of nocturia, weak urine flow, and difficulty initiating urine stream suggest potential prostate issues, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). A digital rectal exam can help assess the size and condition of the prostate gland. It is an essential step in diagnosing BPH or other prostate conditions.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is not the priority in this case, as the client's symptoms are more indicative of a prostate issue rather than a urinary tract infection.
C: Maintaining a voiding diary may provide information on the frequency and volume of urine output, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
D: Instructing the client in cleansing techniques for the glans penis is not relevant to the reported symptoms and does not address the potential prostate issue.
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
- C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
- D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention.
Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications.
Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.