Nokea
16wks gestation reports for a triple screen test. What statements determines understanding?
- A. "This test can be used as a screening for spina bifida."
- B. "This test is a screen test, and I will need other testing if I have abn results."
- C. "this test can indicate if I may be at an increased risk for having a child with down syndrome."
- D. A triple screen test is a screening tool. Maternal blood is drawn and alpha-fetoprotein, hcg, and estriol values are assessed to determine if the mother is at an increased risk for neural tube defects or chromosomal trisomy's. Spina bifida and downs syndrome are the two most common risks.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct:
1. A triple screen test includes assessing alpha-fetoprotein, hCG, and estriol levels.
2. These values help determine the risk for neural tube defects and chromosomal trisomies.
3. The test does not directly diagnose spina bifida but assesses neural tube defects.
4. Down syndrome risk is also evaluated, not diagnosed directly.
5. Answer D provides a comprehensive explanation of the test components and its purpose, aligning with the test's actual function.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A. Incorrect because the test screens for neural tube defects and chromosomal trisomies, not just spina bifida.
B. Incorrect because the test is a screening tool for specific conditions, not a definitive diagnostic test.
C. Incorrect because the test assesses multiple conditions, not just Down syndrome specifically.
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A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?
- A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
- B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 min apart
- C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
- D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds. Prolonged contractions can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased fetal oxygenation. Staff should report this to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Explanation:
1. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged and may indicate uterine hyperstimulation, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation.
2. Reporting this finding to the provider allows for timely intervention to prevent fetal distress.
3. Choices B, C, and D do not directly indicate a concern for fetal well-being during labor and would not require immediate reporting to the provider.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is teaching a client who has a new prescription for dinoprostone gel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. "This medication promotes softening of the cervix."
- B. "This medication is used to treat preeclampsia."
- C. "It causes relaxation of the uterine muscles."
- D. "It is used to treat genital herpes simplex virus."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "This medication promotes softening of the cervix." Dinoprostone gel is a prostaglandin used to ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction. This explanation is crucial for the client to understand the purpose of the medication. Option B is incorrect because dinoprostone is not used to treat preeclampsia. Option C is incorrect as dinoprostone causes uterine contractions rather than relaxation. Option D is incorrect as dinoprostone is not used to treat genital herpes simplex virus.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes late decelerations in the FRH on the external fetal.... Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Change the client's position.
- B. Palpate the uterus to assess for tachysystole.
- C. Increase the client's IV infusion rate.
- D. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather mask.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Change the client's position. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by pressure on the vena cava from the uterus. Changing the client's position can alleviate this pressure, improving fetal oxygenation. Palpating the uterus or increasing IV infusion rate may not address the underlying issue. Administering oxygen is important but should come after addressing the positional issue to ensure optimal oxygen delivery to the fetus.
What are signs of neonatal sepsis that a nurse should monitor for?
- A. Tachypnea, poor feeding, and temperature instability
- B. Increased alertness, reduced crying, and stable vitals
- C. Lethargy, poor perfusion, and apnea
- D. Hyperthermia, bradycardia, and cyanosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lethargy, poor perfusion, and apnea are classic signs of neonatal sepsis. Lethargy indicates decreased activity and responsiveness, poor perfusion suggests inadequate blood circulation, and apnea is a serious respiratory issue. These signs indicate a systemic infection affecting multiple organs. Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical symptoms of neonatal sepsis. Tachypnea, poor feeding, and temperature instability (Choice A) are more general and can be seen in various conditions. Increased alertness, reduced crying, and stable vitals (Choice B) are not indicative of sepsis, as sepsis typically causes the opposite. Hyperthermia, bradycardia, and cyanosis (Choice D) can be present in sepsis, but they are not as specific or as common as the signs in Choice C.
A patient is seen in the primary care clinic for a sinus infection and is prescribed antibiotics. The only other medication that this patient currently takes is an oral contraceptive. What is the most important education the nurse must give to the patient regarding her medications?
- A. If you have nausea with this combination of medication, make sure to take them with food.
- B. You must use a backup method for contraception while taking antibiotics.
- C. Oral contraceptives are contraindicated with many antibiotics.
- D. No education is necessary; these medications do not interact.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by altering gut flora.
Step 2: Failure to use a backup method can lead to unintended pregnancy.
Step 3: Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the patient on using a backup method to prevent pregnancy.
Summary: Choice A is incorrect as nausea is not the main concern. Choice C is incorrect as not all antibiotics interact with oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as there is a potential interaction between antibiotics and oral contraceptives.