A 14-year-old female comes into clinic for a medical certificate once a week for multiple complaints of chest pain and abdominal pain. The complaints are non-specific, and her physical examination is normal. She is quiet with poor eye contact. She states the pain is worse on school days. Her mother is concerned that her daughter is being bullied but won't talk to her. Her mother is also worried that her complaints represent an undiagnosed medical condition. The next best step in management is:
- A. Referral to tertiary hospital to rule out organic cause
- B. HEADSS or other psychosocial screening
- C. Referral for counselling
- D. Reassurance that nothing is wrong
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HEADSS screening assesses psychosocial factors (e.g., bullying, stress) that may underlie somatic complaints, making it the best next step before referral or reassurance.
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A nurse plans an educational program for staff of a home health agency specializing in care of the elderly. Which topic is the highest priority to include?
- A. Pain assessment techniques for older adults
- B. Psychosocial stimulation for those who live alone
- C. Preparation of psychiatric advance directives in the elderly
- D. Ways to manage disinhibition in elderly persons with dementia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The topic of greatest immediacy is the assessment of pain in older adults. Unmanaged pain can precipitate other problems, such as substance abuse and depression. Elderly patients are less likely to be accurately diagnosed and adequately treated for pain. The distracters are unrelated or of lesser importance.
A student transfers from a hometown college to a university 200 miles away after breaking up with her boyfriend of 2 years. She was slow to make friends at the university. The history shows a close relationship with her mother and sister. She began eating large quantities when she felt sad, and then she induced vomiting. When the student's schoolwork declined, she sought help from the university health clinic. During the initial interview, what priority issue should the nurse address?
- A. Losses
- B. Sleep patterns
- C. School activities
- D. Menstrual flow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer, Losses (choice A), should be the priority issue for the nurse to address during the initial interview with the student. The rationale is as follows:
1. **Emotional Impact of Breakup**: The student's recent breakup is a significant loss that can trigger emotional distress.
2. **Social Isolation**: Slow to make friends at the university could indicate feelings of loneliness and isolation, further exacerbating the impact of the breakup.
3. **Eating Disorder Behaviors**: Eating large quantities and inducing vomiting are maladaptive coping mechanisms linked to emotional distress and loss.
4. **Academic Decline**: The decline in schoolwork could be a manifestation of the student's emotional struggles related to loss.
5. **Relationship with Family**: Close relationship with her mother and sister may also influence how she copes with losses and seeks support.
Summary:
- **Sleep Patterns (choice B)**: While important, sleep patterns are secondary to addressing the student's emotional distress and coping mechanisms related
A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness midmorning. During lunch he has difficulty swallowing food and speaking, and when vital signs are taken 30 minutes later, he is noted to be stuporous and diaphoretic, with a temperature of 38.8° C, pulse of 110 beats/min, and blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg. The nurse should suspect _____ and should _____.
- A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome"¦place him in a cooling blanket and transfer to ICU
- B. Anticholinergic toxicity"¦check vital signs and prepare to use a cooling blanket stat
- C. Relapse of his psychosis"¦administer PRN antipsychotic drugs and notify his physician
- D. Agranulocytosis"¦hold his antipsychotic and draw blood for a complete blood count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. The severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, altered mental status, diaphoresis, elevated temperature, and vital sign changes are classic signs of NMS. Treatment includes immediate cooling to lower the body temperature and transfer to the intensive care unit for close monitoring and supportive care.
Choice B: Anticholinergic toxicity does not fit the patient's presentation as there are no specific signs of anticholinergic toxicity such as dry mucous membranes, dilated pupils, or tachycardia.
Choice C: Relapse of psychosis is unlikely to present with the same constellation of symptoms, including altered mental status, fever, and vital sign changes.
Choice D: Agranulocytosis is characterized by a severe drop in white blood cells, leading to increased risk of infection, but it does
The nurse who assesses a patient previously diagnosed as having paranoid personality disorder is most likely to describe the patient as:
- A. superficially charming.
- B. intense and impulsive.
- C. guarded and distant.
- D. friendly and open.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: guarded and distant. This is because individuals with paranoid personality disorder typically exhibit suspiciousness, mistrust, and a reluctance to confide in others. They tend to be hypervigilant and wary of others, leading them to appear guarded and distant.
A: Superficially charming is incorrect because individuals with paranoid personality disorder are more likely to be cautious and suspicious rather than charming.
B: Intense and impulsive is incorrect as this description is more characteristic of individuals with borderline personality disorder, not paranoid personality disorder.
D: Friendly and open is incorrect because individuals with paranoid personality disorder are more likely to be reserved and cautious in their interactions.
In summary, the correct answer is C because individuals with paranoid personality disorder typically exhibit guarded and distant behavior due to their suspicious and mistrustful nature.
Police bring a 63-year-old woman to the emergency room, reporting that her behavior is disorganized and disruptive, that her speech makes little sense, and that she does not seem able to take care of herself. The woman has had elective surgeries at the hospital previously and was seen in the ER last week after a fall; records show no history of similar symptoms or mental illness. The ER physician speaks with the patient but does not examine her medically, diagnoses her with schizophrenia, and orders admission to the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Ask another physician with more of an interest in psychiatry to also take a look at this patient, explaining that you just want to be as thorough as possible.
- B. Suggest that a psychiatric consult be requested before admitting the patient to a psychiatric unit, to validate the diagnosis and speed the initiation of medication.
- C. Remind the physician that schizophrenia usually develops earlier in life, that such presentations may be caused by medical problems, and suggest a medical work-up.
- D. Note that the patient's blood pressure and respirations were elevated when she arrived, and suggest that they be evaluated before admitting the patient to the psychiatric unit.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it promotes a thorough and systematic approach to the patient's care. First, it challenges the premature diagnosis of schizophrenia without a medical examination. Second, it highlights the importance of considering medical causes for the symptoms presented by the patient. This is crucial as the patient's age and lack of prior history of mental illness suggest that a medical work-up is necessary to rule out underlying medical conditions that could be causing her symptoms. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation and appropriate treatment tailored to the patient's specific needs.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the fundamental issue of exploring potential medical causes for the patient's symptoms before jumping to a psychiatric diagnosis or treatment. A, B, and D focus on seeking additional psychiatric opinions, consulting for medication initiation, and evaluating vital signs, respectively, which do not address the need for a thorough medical evaluation in this case.
Nokea