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A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?
- A. Assess temperature every hour.
- B. Allow liberal family visitation.
- C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
- D. Keep an airway at the bedside.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.
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The healthcare provider is preparing to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) to a postpartum client. Based on what assessment finding should the healthcare provider withhold the drug?
- A. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
- B. A large amount of lochia rubra
- C. Blood pressure 149/90
- D. Positive Homan's sign
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A blood pressure of 149/90 is an indication to withhold Methergine due to its potential to further increase blood pressure. Methergine is a medication that can cause vasoconstriction, leading to elevated blood pressure. In this case, administering Methergine could exacerbate the elevated blood pressure, posing a risk to the patient. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication in the presence of hypertension to prevent adverse effects. The other options are not directly related to the administration of Methergine. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min is within the normal range. A large amount of lochia rubra may indicate normal postpartum bleeding. A positive Homan's sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, which is not a contraindication for administering Methergine.
A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine the pulse deficit
- B. Administer the scheduled dose
- C. Calculate the safe dose range
- D. Review the serum digoxin level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.
The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?
- A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
- B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
- C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
- D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.
After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
- B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
- D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.
A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.
- B. Instruct the client to run warm water on her breasts.
- C. Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
- D. Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After childbirth, engorgement of the breasts can occur, leading to swelling and discomfort. Applying cold compresses helps reduce swelling and provides comfort for engorged breasts. This action can also help with pain relief and promote milk flow regulation. Instructing the client to run warm water on her breasts (Choice B) is incorrect as warm water can increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. Wearing a loose-fitting bra (Choice C) may provide some comfort, but it does not address the swelling effectively. Expressing small amounts of milk (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of engorgement.