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A 16-year-old has come to the clinic and asks to talk to a nurse. The nurse asks the teen what she needs and the teen responds that she has become sexually active and is concerned about getting HIV. The teen asks the nurse what she can do keep from getting HIV. What would be the nurses best response?
- A. Theres no way to be sure you wont get HIV except to use condoms correctly.
- B. Only the correct use of a female condom protects against the transmission of HIV.
- C. There are new ways of protecting yourself from HIV that are being discovered every day.
- D. Other than abstinence, only the consistent and correct use of condoms is effective in preventing HIV.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of consistent and correct condom use in preventing HIV transmission. Here's the rationale:
1. Abstinence is the most effective way to prevent HIV, but since the teen is sexually active, abstinence may not be feasible for her.
2. Using condoms consistently and correctly is the next best method for preventing HIV transmission during sexual activity.
3. Choice A is incorrect because it implies that using condoms is not effective, which is not true.
4. Choice B is incorrect because it only mentions female condoms, while both male and female condoms can be effective in preventing HIV.
5. Choice C is incorrect because while new prevention methods are being researched, the established method of consistent condom use remains the most effective.
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An advanced practice nurse has performed a Rinne test on a new patient. During the test, the patient reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound. How should the nurse best interpret this assessment finding?
- A. The patients hearing is likely normal.
- B. The patient is at risk for tinnitus.
- C. The patient likely has otosclerosis.
- D. The patient likely has sensorineural hearing loss. Chapter 69: Select Neuro Topics: Trigeminal Neuralgia & Bell’s Palsy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient's hearing is likely normal. This interpretation is based on the normal Rinne test result, where air-conducted sound is expected to be louder than bone-conducted sound. This finding indicates that the patient has intact air conduction and no significant conductive hearing loss. Option B is incorrect because tinnitus is not directly related to the Rinne test results. Option C is incorrect as otosclerosis would typically present with abnormal Rinne test results showing bone-conducted sound to be louder. Option D is incorrect as sensorineural hearing loss would not typically affect the Rinne test results in this way.
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
- A. Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
- B. Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
- C. Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
- D. Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection.
A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor.
B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation.
C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario.
Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?
- A. You have a great attitude. This will likely shorten the amount of time that you need medications.
- B. In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
- C. Most people are treated until their intraocular pressure goes below 50 mm Hg.
- D. You can likely expect a minimum of 6 months of treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure.
2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss.
3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition.
4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment.
C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg.
D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.
A patient has had a total mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient asks the nurse when she can take a shower. What should the nurse respond?
- A. Not until the drain is removed
- B. On the second postoperative day
- C. Now, if you wash gently with soap and water
- D. Seven days after your surgery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Not until the drain is removed. After a mastectomy with immediate reconstruction, there is typically a drain in place to collect fluid. Showering before the drain is removed can increase the risk of infection and disrupt the healing process. It is important to wait until the healthcare provider removes the drain to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications.
Summary:
B: On the second postoperative day - Too early, the drain needs to be removed first.
C: Now, if you wash gently with soap and water - Incorrect, the drain should be removed before showering.
D: Seven days after your surgery - Incorrect, waiting for a specific number of days is not necessary, it depends on when the drain is removed.
Which intrapartal assessment should be avoided when caring for a patient with HELLP syndrome?
- A. Abdominal palpation
- B. Venous sample of blood
- C. Checking deep tendon reflexes
- D. Auscultation of the heart and lungs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abdominal palpation. Palpating the abdomen can potentially cause rupture of the liver in patients with HELLP syndrome due to increased risk of liver hematoma. This can lead to severe bleeding and compromise the patient's condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes (C), auscultation of the heart and lungs (D), and venous sample of blood (B) are safe assessments that do not pose a risk of exacerbating the patient's condition. It is crucial to prioritize patient safety and avoid interventions that can harm the patient, making avoiding abdominal palpation the correct choice in caring for a patient with HELLP syndrome.