Nokea
A 17-year-old female presents with cervical adenopathy and a history of daily fevers and drenching night sweats. A biopsy is performed and reveals classic Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following is least appropriate as part of the staging workup?
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. CT scan of chest, abdomen, and pelvis
- C. Functional imaging (PET scan)
- D. Lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis. In Hodgkin lymphoma staging, CNS involvement is rare at initial presentation. Therefore, routine CSF analysis is not recommended unless there are specific neurological symptoms suggestive of CNS disease. A lumbar puncture carries risks of complications and should not be performed routinely. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate for staging in Hodgkin lymphoma to evaluate for distant metastases and characterize disease extent.
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Which of the following is associated with normocytic normochromic anaemia?
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Primaquine
- C. Pregnancy
- D. Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with this type of anemia due to increased blood volume and iron demands. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is typically microcytic hypochromic. Primaquine (choice B) is not known to cause normocytic normochromic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) results in hemolytic anemia with abnormal red blood cell morphology. Thus, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the characteristics of normocytic normochromic anemia.
An 18-month-old boy, whose parents are first cousins, is referred to you because of a significant episode of epistaxis. The parents report that the child had bleeding after circumcision and large hematomas with immunizations. Platelet aggregation studies show the following: This child's platelets are unable to interact with which of the following?
- A. ADP
- B. Fibrinogen
- C. von Willebrand factor
- D. Platelet factor 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fibrinogen. In this case, the child is likely suffering from Glanzmann thrombasthenia, a rare inherited platelet disorder where platelets lack the ability to bind to fibrinogen. This results in impaired platelet aggregation and clot formation, leading to bleeding tendencies. The other options (A, C, D) are not affected in Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Platelets interact normally with ADP (A), von Willebrand factor (C), and Platelet factor 4 (D) in this disorder.
Best tit modality in CML is:
- A. hydroxyurea
- B. allogenic BMT
- C. interferon alpha
- D. radiotherapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best treatment modality for chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is allogenic bone marrow transplantation (BMT) because it offers the potential for cure by replacing the abnormal cells with healthy donor cells. This is the only option that can provide long-term disease control and potential cure for CML. Hydroxyurea (choice A) is a cytotoxic drug used for symptom control but does not target the underlying cause. Interferon alpha (choice C) can help control the disease but is less effective in achieving long-term remission compared to BMT. Radiotherapy (choice D) is not a standard treatment for CML and is not curative.
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
- A. Vestibular system
- B. Cerebral cortex
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Vomiting center
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I apologize, but it seems like the correct answer (E) is missing from the choices provided in the question. If you could kindly provide the correct answer, I would be more than happy to provide a detailed explanation for why that answer is correct and summarize why the other choices are incorrect.
A 10-year-old patient with aplastic anemia, who is blood type B negative, is receiving a red blood cell transfusion. About 10 minutes after the transfusion starts, the patient develops anxiety and lower back pain. The transfusion continues for another 5 minutes until it is stopped when he develops a temperature of 40 °C with chills and rigors. A transfusion reaction work-up is most likely to reveal what findings?
- A. Spherocytes on peripheral blood smear
- B. Gram-negative Bacillus on gram stain of remaining RBC unit
- C. Chest x-ray with bilateral pulmonary infiltrates that are new compared to an x-ray done last week
- D. DAT positive for C3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: DAT positive for C3. This finding suggests complement-mediated hemolysis, which is consistent with a transfusion reaction known as transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI). TRALI presents with respiratory distress, fever, and chills due to immune complexes activating the complement system. A: Spherocytes indicate hemolysis, which is not specific to TRALI. B: Gram-negative Bacillus suggests bacterial contamination, leading to sepsis, not TRALI. C: Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates are seen in transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), not TRALI.