A 19-year-old woman, prescribed a triphasic oral contraceptive for the first time one month ago, complains of frequent spotting. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
- A. Increase the dose of oestrogen.
- B. Increase the dose of progestogen.
- C. Advise alternative contraception.
- D. Continue the medication and review in two months.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spotting is common in the first few months of oral contraceptives as the body adjusts. Continuing the medication and reviewing later (D) is standard, rather than immediate dose changes (A, B), switching methods (C, E) without trial.
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What is the key component of treatment for a patient with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Encouraging rapid weight gain and exercise.
- B. Establishing a structured meal plan and emotional support.
- C. Restricting food intake to avoid further weight gain.
- D. Promoting independence and avoidance of therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because establishing a structured meal plan helps regulate eating behaviors and promotes nutrition restoration, while emotional support addresses underlying psychological issues. Rapid weight gain and exercise (A) can be harmful due to medical complications. Restricting food intake (C) worsens the condition. Promoting independence and avoiding therapy (D) hinder recovery by neglecting the importance of professional help.
The mother of a client newly diagnosed with schizophrenia is a nurse. She unhappily tells the nurse on the unit, 'I've tried to be a good mother, but my daughter still developed schizophrenia. When I was in school, we were taught that it was the mother's fault if a child became schizophrenic. I wish I knew what I did wrong.' The response that would help the mother evaluate models explaining schizophrenia would be:
- A. I can see how you would be upset over this turn of events.'
- B. New findings suggest this disorder is biologic in nature.'
- C. Don't be so hard on yourself; your daughter needs you to be strong.'
- D. It's difficult to see that double-bind communication produces stress for the child at the time it's occurring.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Choice B is the correct answer because it provides the mother with new information that schizophrenia is biologic in nature, shifting the blame away from her.
2. This response helps the mother understand that her daughter's condition is not her fault, based on current scientific understanding.
3. By offering this information, the nurse helps the mother reevaluate her beliefs and perceptions about the causes of schizophrenia.
4. Choices A, C, and D do not address the mother's concerns directly or provide her with the necessary information to understand the biological basis of schizophrenia.
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for Anorexia Nervosa?
- A. Family-Based Therapy
- B. Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
- C. Psychodynamic therapy
- D. Humanistic therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Family-Based Therapy (FBT) is the evidence-based first-line treatment for Anorexia Nervosa in adolescents, per NICE and APA guidelines.
A patient reports an intense, overwhelming fear of driving a car. The fear has disrupted all elements of the patient's life. The patient does not go to the grocery store unless driven by someone else, has relinquished their job, and has few social contacts. The patient's treatment plan includes:
- A. assertiveness training
- B. biofeedback
- C. stress management assistance
- D. systematic desensitization
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Systematic desensitization gradually exposes the patient to driving-related stimuli, reducing phobia through controlled steps.
The antisocial personality is one who
- A. is irresponsible and seems to lack remorse
- B. is frequently dangerous and out of contact with reality
- C. is always a delinquent or criminal
- D. benefits greatly from humanistic and psychoanalytic therapies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antisocial personality features irresponsibility and lack of remorse, not necessarily overt danger.