Nokea
A 2-year-old toddler has just returned from surgery where a hip spica cast was applied. Which nursing action will best maintain the child's skin integrity?
- A. Changing the toddler's diapers every 2 hours.
- B. Keeping the toddler's genital area open to the air.
- C. Implementing a 3-hour turning schedule for the toddler.
- D. Assessing the toddler's perineal area for redness regularly.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The spica cast is often needed to treat developmental hip dysplasia (DDH) or after hip/pelvis surgery. The cast encases the child's trunk and one or both legs while leaving access to the genital. Considering the age of the child, diapers will be in use and will need to be changed at least every 2 hours during the day and 3 to 4 hours during the night to help minimize the effect of urine and feces on the child's diaper area. Exposing the genital and perineal area to the air is an intervention that is implemented to assist in healing damaged skin tissue. Turning the child regularly is appropriate care but has no impact on the major issue of incontinence. Assessment of the skin is necessary but identifies skin breakdown once it has begun.
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A client has been prescribed procainamide. The nurse implements which intervention before administering the medication to minimize the client's risk for injury?
- A. Obtaining a chest x-ray
- B. Assessing blood pressure and pulse
- C. Obtaining a complete blood cell count and liver function studies
- D. Scheduling a drug level to be drawn 1 hour after the dose is administered
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Procainamide is an antidysrhythmic medication. Before the medication is administered, the client's blood pressure and pulse are checked. This medication can cause toxic effects, and serum blood levels would be checked before administering the medication (therapeutic serum level is 4 to 10 mcg/mL [17.00 to 42.50 mcmol/L]). A chest x-ray and obtaining a complete blood cell count and liver function studies are unnecessary.
A client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is prescribed intravenous (IV) pentamidine. What intervention should the nurse plan to implement to safely administer the medication?
- A. Infuse over 1 hour and allow the client to ambulate.
- B. Infuse over 1 hour with the client in a supine position.
- C. Administer over 30 minutes with the client in a reclining position.
- D. Administer by IV push over 15 minutes with the client in a supine position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV pentamidine is an antifungal medication infused over 1 hour with the client supine to minimize severe hypotension and dysrhythmias. Options 1, 3, and 4 are inaccurate in either the length of time that pentamidine is administered or the client's position.
A client has fallen and sustained a leg injury. Which question should the nurse ask to help determine if the client sustained a fracture?
- A. Is the pain a dull ache?
- B. Is the pain sharp and continuous?
- C. Does the discomfort feel like a cramp?
- D. Does the pain feel like the muscle was stretched?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fracture pain is generally described as sharp, continuous, and increasing in frequency. Bone pain is often described as a dull, deep ache. Muscle injury is often described as an aching or cramping pain, or soreness. Strains result from trauma to a muscle body or the attachment of a tendon from overstretching or overextension.
The nurse assesses the client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for early signs of Kaposi's sarcoma. What characteristics would be consistent with that lesion? Select all that apply.
- A. Flat
- B. Raised
- C. Resembling a blister
- D. Light blue in color
- E. Brownish and scaly in appearance
- F. Color varies from pink to dark violet or black
Correct Answer: A,F
Rationale: Kaposi's sarcoma generally starts with an area that is flat and pink that changes to a dark violet or black color. The lesions are usually present bilaterally. They may appear in many areas of the body and are treated with radiation, chemotherapy, and cryotherapy. None of the other options are associated with this type of lesion.
A client who underwent surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm is 1 day postoperative. The nurse performs an abdominal assessment and notes the absence of bowel sounds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Start the client on sips of water.
- B. Remove the nasogastric (NG) tube.
- C. Call the primary health care provider immediately.
- D. Document the finding and continue to assess for bowel sounds.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bowel sounds may be absent for 3 to 4 postoperative days because of bowel manipulation during surgery. The nurse should document the finding and continue to monitor the client. The NG tube should stay in place if present, and the client is kept NPO until after the onset of bowel sounds. Additionally, the nurse does not remove the tube without a prescription to do so. There is no need to call the primary health care provider immediately at this time.