Nokea
A 20-month-old otherwise healthy male presents late for his 18-month well child check. During his first year of life, he took iron-fortified formula and had a point-of-care hemoglobin (Hgb) of 12 g/dL at his 1-year well child check. His mother reports that he is a picky eater but loves milk and has recently become obsessive about chewing the corners of his cardboard books. Physical examination is normal except for a flow murmur. Which combination of laboratory test results listed below would most likely characterize this patient?
- A. Hgb 8.7 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 fL, serum ferritin 2 ng/mL
- B. Hgb 12.0 g/dL, MCV 80 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- C. Hgb 9.2 g/dL, MCV 60 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- D. Hgb 11.2 g/dL, MCV 90 fL, serum ferritin 7 ng/mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it indicates iron deficiency anemia. The low Hgb of 8.7 g/dL is below normal range for his age. The MCV of 60 fL is low, indicating microcytic anemia which is characteristic of iron deficiency. The serum ferritin level of 2 ng/mL is very low, supporting the diagnosis.
Choice B is incorrect as the Hgb and MCV are within normal range, and the ferritin level is not indicative of iron deficiency. Choice C has a low Hgb but normal MCV and ferritin level. Choice D has a normal Hgb and low ferritin, but the MCV is high, inconsistent with iron deficiency anemia.
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Koilonychias is a specific feature of
- A. Hemolytic anemia
- B. Sickle cell disease
- C. Thalassemia major
- D. Iron deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is D (Iron deficiency anemia):
1. Koilonychias is characterized by spoon-shaped nails, a classic sign of iron deficiency anemia due to changes in nail structure.
2. Iron deficiency leads to decreased production of keratin, causing nail deformities like koilonychias.
3. Hemolytic anemia (choice A) and Sickle cell disease (choice B) are not typically associated with koilonychias.
4. Thalassemia major (choice C) can cause nail changes, but koilonychias is more commonly seen in iron deficiency anemia.
A 14-year-old male patient is diagnosed with very high risk acute lymphoblastic leukemia and is likely going to require an allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant to cure his leukemia. Prior to going to transplant, he is likely to require multiple blood transfusions. Which of the following products or component modifications is the best way to prevent him from developing alloimmunization due to anti-HLA antibodies prior to transplant?
- A. Frozen RBCs
- B. Volume-reduced blood products
- C. Irradiation of all blood products
- D. Leukoreduced blood products
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Leukoreduced blood products. Leukoreduction removes white blood cells, which are a major source of HLA antigens that can trigger alloimmunization. By using leukoreduced blood products, the risk of developing anti-HLA antibodies is significantly reduced, thus minimizing the potential for alloimmunization prior to transplant.
A: Frozen RBCs - Freezing does not eliminate HLA antigens and does not prevent alloimmunization.
B: Volume-reduced blood products - Reducing volume does not impact HLA antigens and thus doesn't prevent alloimmunization.
C: Irradiation of all blood products - While irradiation prevents graft-versus-host disease, it does not directly prevent the development of anti-HLA antibodies.
A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurse's best response?
- A. Everyone should do these things because they're health promotion activities that apply to everyone.
- B. You don't want to develop a second cancer, do you?
- C. You need to do this just to be on the safe side.
- D. It's important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because reducing factors that increase the risk of second cancers is crucial for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Alcohol, smoking, and sun exposure are known risk factors for developing secondary cancers. By avoiding these behaviors, the patient can lower the chances of developing another cancer. Choice A is incorrect as it does not specifically address the patient's situation. Choice B uses fear tactics and may not be the most effective way to educate the patient. Choice C is vague and does not provide a clear rationale. Overall, choice D is the best response as it directly addresses the patient's concern and provides a logical explanation for the importance of changing these behaviors.
A study is designed to investigate the rates of central line–associated blood stream infections (CLABSI) among pediatric hematology/oncology patients. Investigators wish to compare the length of stay (LOS) between subjects receiving three common central line types (totally implanted catheter [port], peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC], and tunneled externalized catheter [TEC]). It is discovered that LOS is not normally distributed. What is the appropriate test for comparing the LOS between patients receiving the three central line types?
- A. Student's t test
- B. ANOVA
- C. Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney test
- D. Kruskal-Wallis test
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kruskal-Wallis test. Since the LOS data is not normally distributed, parametric tests like Student's t test and ANOVA are not appropriate. The Kruskal-Wallis test is a non-parametric test used to compare three or more independent groups when the data is not normally distributed. It ranks the LOS values across the three central line types and tests whether there are differences in medians. The Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney test (choice C) is used for comparing two independent groups, not three. Therefore, it is not the appropriate test in this scenario.
A 4-year-old girl with a history of recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising is referred to you for evaluation. She is found to have a prolonged PTT and a factor VIII level that is less than 1%. Both parents have a history of excessive bleeding. She is admitted with a severe episode of epistaxis, and your colleague orders 40 IU/kg of recombinant factor VIII. Her epistaxis resolves initially but within an hour starts again at the same severity as before. What is the best next step?
- A. Infuse a von Willebrand factor concentrate.
- B. Give another dose of recombinant factor VIII concentrate.
- C. Call otorhinolaryngology to pack her nose.
- D. Check for a factor VIII inhibitor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infuse a von Willebrand factor concentrate. In this scenario, the 4-year-old girl has a history of recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising, indicative of a bleeding disorder. The prolonged PTT and factor VIII level less than 1% suggest a deficiency in von Willebrand factor (VWF) or factor VIII. When the initial dose of recombinant factor VIII did not completely resolve the epistaxis, it indicates a possible deficiency in VWF activity. Therefore, the best next step is to infuse a von Willebrand factor concentrate to address the VWF deficiency, which should help control the bleeding.
Summary:
- Option B (Give another dose of recombinant factor VIII concentrate) is not the best choice because the initial dose did not fully resolve the bleeding, indicating a different factor may be deficient.
- Option C (Call otorhinolaryngology to pack her nose) addresses the symptom but does not