Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet Related

Review Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet related questions and content

A 20-year-old college student has presented to the campus medical clinic seeking to begin oral contraceptive therapy. The nurse has recognized the need for adequate health education related to the patient's request. The nurse should emphasize the fact that successful prevention of pregnancy depends primarily on the patient's

  • A. current health status.
  • B. vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.
  • C. knowledge of sexual health.
  • D. risk factors for adverse effects.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.' When initiating oral contraceptive therapy, the success of preventing pregnancy relies heavily on the patient's commitment to following the prescribed regimen consistently. Compliance with taking the oral contraceptives as directed is crucial for their effectiveness. Choice A, 'current health status,' is not the primary factor for successful prevention of pregnancy with oral contraceptives. Choice C, 'knowledge of sexual health,' while important, is not the primary determinant of contraceptive efficacy. Choice D, 'risk factors for adverse effects,' though relevant for monitoring and managing side effects, is not the primary focus for ensuring contraceptive success.

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Which immunoglobulin is the first to appear in response to a new antigen?

  • A. IgA
  • B. IgG
  • C. IgE
  • D. IgM
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to a new antigen. It is produced initially during the primary immune response. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is produced in a secondary immune response and is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the bloodstream. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not the initial response to a new antigen.

What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

  • A. Reduction in red blood cell count
  • B. Decreased number of infections
  • C. Decreased fatigue and increased energy
  • D. Increase in white blood cell count
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

  • A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
  • B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
  • C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
  • D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and menopausal symptoms, or causing weight gain and fluid retention.

An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?

  • A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
  • B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
  • C. Changes in speech and reasoning
  • D. Increased intracranial pressure
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.

When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?

  • A. Golgi tendon reflex
  • B. Myotatic reflex
  • C. Withdrawal reflex
  • D. Crossed-extensor reflex
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect:
- The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it.
- The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described.
- The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.

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