A 20 year-old is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. The patient has an open fracture of his tibia. The wound is highly contaminated and there is extensive soft-tissue damage. How would this patients fracture likely be graded?
- A. Grade I
- B. Grade II
- C. Grade III
- D. Grade IV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Open fractures are graded according to the following criteria. Grade I is a clean wound less than 1 cm long. Grade II is a larger wound without extensive soft-tissue damage. Grade III is highly contaminated, has extensive soft-tissue damage, and is the most severe. There is no grade IV fracture.
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An elite high school football player has been diagnosed with a shoulder dislocation. The patient has been treated and is eager to resume his role on his team, stating that he is not experiencing pain. What should the nurse emphasize during health education?
- A. The need to take analgesia regardless of the short-term absence of pain
- B. The importance of adhering to the prescribed treatment and rehabilitation regimen
- C. The fact that he has a permanently increased risk of future shoulder dislocations
- D. The importance of monitoring for intracapsular bleeding once he resumes playing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients who have experienced sports-related injuries are often highly motivated to return to their previous level of activity. Adherence to restriction of activities and gradual resumption of activities needs to be reinforced. Appropriate analgesia use must be encouraged, but analgesia does not necessarily have to be taken in the absence of pain. If healing is complete, the patient does not likely have a greatly increased risk of reinjury. Dislocations rarely cause bleeding after the healing process.
An older adult patient has fallen in her home and is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a suspected fractured hip. X-rays confirm a fracture of the left femoral neck. When planning assessments during the patients presurgical care, the nurse should be aware of the patients heightened risk of what complication?
- A. Osteomyelitis
- B. Avascular necrosis
- C. Phantom pain
- D. Septicemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fractures of the neck of the femur may damage the vascular system that supplies blood to the head and the neck of the femur, and the bone may become ischemic. For this reason, AVN is common in patients with femoral neck fractures. Infections are not immediate complications and phantom pain applies to patients with amputations, not hip fractures.
A patient is being treated for a fractured hip and the nurse is aware of the need to implement interventions to prevent muscle wasting and other complications of immobility. What intervention best addresses the patients need for exercise?
- A. Performing gentle leg lifts with both legs
- B. Performing massage to stimulate circulation
- C. Encouraging frequent use of the overbed trapeze
- D. Encouraging the patient to log roll side to side once per hour
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is encouraged to exercise as much as possible by means of the overbed trapeze. This device helps strengthen the arms and shoulders in preparation for protected ambulation. Independent logrolling may result in injury due to the location of the fracture. Leg lifts would be contraindicated for the same reason. Massage by the nurse is not a substitute for exercise.
Six weeks after an above-the-knee amputation (AKA), a patient returns to the outpatient office for a routine postoperative checkup. During the nurses assessment, the patient reports symptoms of phantom pain. What should the nurse tell the patient to do to reduce the discomfort of the phantom pain?
- A. Apply intermittent hot compresses to the area of the amputation.
- B. Avoid activity until the pain subsides.
- C. Take opioid analgesics as ordered.
- D. Elevate the level of the amputation site.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics may be effective in relieving phantom pain. Heat, immobility, and elevation are not noted to relieve this form of pain.
The surgical nurse is admitting a patient from postanesthetic recovery following the patients below-the-knee amputation. The nurse recognizes the patients high risk for postoperative hemorrhage and should keep which of the following at the bedside?
- A. A tourniquet
- B. A syringe preloaded with vitamin K
- C. A unit of packed red blood cells, placed on ice
- D. A dose of protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immediate postoperative bleeding may develop slowly or may take the form of massive hemorrhage resulting from a loosened suture. A large tourniquet should be in plain sight at the patients bedside so that, if severe bleeding occurs, it can be applied to the residual limb to control the hemorrhage. PRBCs cannot be kept at the bedside. Vitamin K and protamine sulfate are antidotes to warfarin and heparin, but are not administered to treat active postsurgical bleeding.
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