Med Surg RN NCLEX Practice Questions Related

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A 20-year-old who hit his head while playing football has a tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening from the seizure, the client asks the nurse, "What caused me to have a seizure? I've never had one before." Which cause should the nurse include in the response as a primary cause of tonic-clonic seizures in adults older than age 20?

  • A. Head trauma.
  • B. Electrolyte imbalance.
  • C. Congenital defect.
  • D. Epilepsy.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Head trauma is a primary cause of seizures in adults over 20, especially in the context of a recent injury. Electrolyte imbalances, congenital defects, or epilepsy are less likely without additional history.