A 22-year-old woman suffering from asthma was prescribed albuterol by inhalation. Albuterol is a bronchodilating drug with a molecular weight of 239 daltons. Which of the following permeation processes most likely accounted for the transfer of the drug through the bronchial mucosa?
- A. Bulk flow transport
- B. Lipid diffusion
- C. Facilitated diffusion
- D. Endocytosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Facilitated diffusion is the most likely permeation process for the transfer of albuterol through the bronchial mucosa. This process involves the use of carrier proteins to facilitate the movement of molecules across the membrane. Since albuterol is a relatively small molecule with a molecular weight of 239 daltons, it is more likely to utilize facilitated diffusion rather than bulk flow transport, endocytosis, or active transport. Lipid diffusion is not as efficient for larger molecules like albuterol, making facilitated diffusion the most suitable choice for this scenario.
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Which of the following adverse drug reactions best explains the patient's disorder?
- A. Overdose toxicity
- B. Anaphylactoid reaction
- C. Idiosyncratic reaction
- D. Autoimmune reaction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The adverse drug reaction that best explains the patient's disorder is an idiosyncratic reaction. Idiosyncratic reactions are unpredictable and occur rarely in response to a drug. In this case, the baby's presentation of microcephaly, broad nasal bridge, short nose, cleft palate, and hypoplasia of the distal phalanges are consistent with a teratogenic effect of a drug taken by the mother during pregnancy. The use of phenytoin for seizures during pregnancy is known to be associated with such birth defects, indicating an idiosyncratic reaction.
When developing an effective medication teaching plan, which component will the nurse identify as most essential?
- A. Written instructions
- B. The patient’s readiness to learn
- C. Use of colorful charts
- D. A review of community resources
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient’s readiness to learn. This is the most essential component because it determines the patient’s receptiveness and ability to understand and apply the medication teaching plan. Assessing the patient’s readiness ensures that the teaching is tailored to their individual needs and learning style, increasing the likelihood of successful medication management.
A: Written instructions may be helpful but are not as effective if the patient is not ready to learn.
C: Use of colorful charts can enhance understanding, but without considering the patient’s readiness, it may not be as impactful.
D: Review of community resources is important but not as crucial as assessing the patient’s readiness to learn for effective medication teaching.
Which of the following terms best defines a beta-blocker that binds reversibly to beta receptors?
- A. Partial agonist
- B. Functional antagonist
- C. Inverse agonist
- D. Noncompetitive antagonist
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A noncompetitive antagonist best defines a beta-blocker that binds reversibly to beta receptors because it binds to a site on the receptor that is not the same as the agonist binding site, thereby preventing the receptor from being activated by the agonist. This type of antagonist does not compete with the agonist for binding to the receptor, making it an effective blocker of receptor activation. In this case, the drug had no intrinsic activity and only bound reversibly to beta receptors, indicating its role as a noncompetitive antagonist.
The nurse is explaining drug action to a nursing student. Which statement made by the nurse is correct?
- A. Water-soluble and ionized drugs are quickly absorbed
- B. A drug not bound to protein is an active drug.
- C. Most receptors are found under the cell membran
- D. Toxic effects can result if the trough level is low.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B: A drug not bound to protein is an active drug.
Rationale: Protein-bound drugs are inactive as they cannot reach target sites. When unbound, drugs can exert pharmacological effects. This is known as the free drug hypothesis. The statement correctly highlights the importance of drug binding to proteins in affecting drug action.
Summary:
A: Water-soluble and ionized drugs are slow to be absorbed due to their inability to cross membranes easily.
C: Receptors are found on the cell membrane, not under it. This statement is inaccurate.
D: Toxic effects are more likely to occur with high trough levels, not low levels.
This patient's disease was most likely mediated by genetic polymorphism of which of the following enzymes?
- A. N-acetyltransferase
- B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
- C. Reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH)-methemoglobin reductase
- D. Pseudocholinesterase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is associated with hemolytic anemia triggered by certain drugs like chloroquine. The patient's presentation with hemolytic anemia after chloroquine treatment suggests a G6PD deficiency, making it the most likely enzyme involved in this patient's disease.
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