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A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
- A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
- B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
- C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
- D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.
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A 28-year-old client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should be implemented?
- A. Massage the calf and foot.
- B. Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot.
- C. Lower the leg off the side of the bed.
- D. Elevate the leg above the heart.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation
- B. Notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside
- C. Obtain written consent for an emergency cesarean section
- D. Draw a blood sample for stat hemoglobin and hematocrit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.
During a routine first-trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Recommend explaining the normal physiological changes during pregnancy.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint.
- C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change.
- D. Prepare to provide education on vaginal health.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The increased vaginal discharge described by the pregnant client, which is white, thin, and watery, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is typically normal and attributed to hormonal fluctuations. The nurse should reassure the client that this type of discharge is expected during pregnancy and does not typically indicate an issue requiring medical intervention or treatment.
Client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role. Which factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching of the gravid client?
- A. The client's readiness to learn.
- B. The client's educational background.
- C. The order in which the information is presented.
- D. The extent to which the pregnancy was planned.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
- C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
- D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.