A 27-year-old male client develops malignant hyperthermia during a herniorrhaphy; his temperature is 105.4 degrees F. The client has had no previous health problems other than hypertension. A nurse orienting in the OR says, 'I thought only people with brain tumors had this problem.' Which of the following answers explains malignant hyperthermia?
- A. Epinephrine increased the basal metabolic rate as soon as the general anesthesia was administered.
- B. The blood flow to active muscles increased with a concurrent decrease in the blood flow to the organs not needed for rapid activity.
- C. The catecholamines released led to activation of the sympathetic nervous system.
- D. Malignant hyperthermia is an inherited disorder of muscle metabolism that causes fever, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Epinephrine is a hormone employed in the fight-or-flight stress response. It does not contribute to malignant hyperthermia. Stimulation of the sympathetic adrenal medullary mechanism helps the body cope with stress. It does not contribute to malignant hyperthermia. Catecholamine release is one of the physiological effects of stress. It does not contribute to malignant hyperthermia. Malignant hyperthermia is an inherited disorder of muscle metabolism that increases intracellular calcium, which causes generalized muscle rigidity, fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea.
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On the first postoperative day following a bowel resection, the patient complains of abdominal and incisional pain rated 9 on a scale of 0 to 10. Postoperative orders include morphine, 4 mg IV q2 hr, for pain and may repeat morphine, 4 mg IV, for breakthrough pain. The nurse determines that it has been only 2 hours since the last dose of morphine and wants to wait a little longer. What effect does the nurse’s action have on the patient?
- A. Protects the patient from addiction and toxic effects of the drug
- B. Prevents hastening or causing a patient’s death from respiratory dysfunction
- C. Contributes to unnecessary suffering and physical and psychosocial dysfunction
- D. Indicates that the nurse understands the adage of “start low and go slow” in administering analgesics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Delaying pain relief contributes to unnecessary suffering and can negatively impact recovery.
An 88-year-old woman is brought to the health clinic for the first time by her 64-year-old daughter. During the initial comprehensive nursing assessment of the patient, what should the nurse do?
- A. Ask the daughter whether the patient has any urgent needs or problems.
- B. Interview the patient and daughter together so that pertinent information can be confirmed.
- C. Obtain a health history using a functional health pattern and assess activities of daily living (ADLs) and mental status.
- D. Refer the patient for an interdisciplinary comprehensive geriatric assessment because at her age she will have multiple needs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing ADLs, mental status, and obtaining a thorough health history ensures comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs.
A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
- B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
- C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
- D. Administer morphine sulfate IV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask. In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Supplemental oxygen helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress, reducing the workload on the heart. This intervention addresses the client's dyspnea and anxiousness by improving oxygen delivery.
Choice B is incorrect as placing the client in high-Fowler's position with legs in a dependent position can help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
Choice C is incorrect as sublingual nitroglycerin is typically used for angina and not the priority intervention for cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Choice D is incorrect as morphine sulfate IV may be indicated for pain relief and anxiety, but it is not the priority intervention to address the client's oxygenation needs in cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
For Mrs. Allen's weight reduction program to be successful, what should the nurse explain?
- A. An anorexiant should be used 4-6 weeks at the beginning
- B. An intestinal bypass is recommended if rapid weight loss is not achieved
- C. Personal eating habits must be assessed objectively
- D. Complete fasting for a week is necessary
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing personal eating habits objectively helps identify areas for improvement and fosters sustainable lifestyle changes.
8. What is acupuncture used for (select all that apply)?
- A. Relieve pain by causing counterirritation in another area of the body.
- B. Reestablish the flow of Qi through meridians to simulate the body’s self-healing mechanism.
- C. Create an inflammatory response at an acupoint, increasing blood circulation and healing energy.
- D. Relieve nausea and vomiting postoperatively, with pregnancy, or related to chemotherapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acupuncture is commonly used to reestablish the flow of Qi (option B) and relieve nausea and vomiting (option D), among other therapeutic uses.