Nokea
A 3-month-old female presents to the emergency room with vomiting and abdominal distension. She has a left-side abdominal mass, and an abdominal ultrasound confirms an 8-cm mass arising from the left kidney. Liver lesions are also noted. Nephrectomy is performed and reveals a histologic diagnosis of malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK). Which of the following is not a true statement about the management of this patient?
- A. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present in infancy.
- B. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present with metastatic (stage III or IV) disease.
- C. She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.
- D. Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation on chromosome 22 is recommended, with brain MRI every 3 months until she is 5 years old, if testing is germline positive for SMARCB1/INI1.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation. This statement is not true because malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK) has a poor prognosis, even with aggressive treatment. Here's a breakdown:
1. MRTK is an aggressive and rare tumor that often presents in infancy, supporting statement A.
2. Most patients with MRTK present with metastatic disease, indicating poor prognosis, aligning with statement B.
3. Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation is essential due to the genetic predisposition associated with MRTK, supporting statement D.
In summary, statement C is incorrect as MRTK typically has a challenging clinical course despite comprehensive treatment approaches.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse works in a gerontology clinic. What age-related change(s) related to the hematologic system will the nurse expect during health assessment? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Dentition deteriorates with more cavities.
- B. Nail are stron and smooth
- C. Progressive loss or thinning of hair occurs.
- D. Sclerae begin to turn yellow or pale.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
Correct Answer (C): Progressive loss or thinning of hair is an age-related change in the hematologic system due to decreased blood flow to hair follicles. This is commonly observed in the elderly population.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Dentition deteriorates with more cavities is related to dental health, not the hematologic system.
B: Nails being strong and smooth are related to nail health, not the hematologic system.
D: Sclerae turning yellow or pale is a sign of jaundice, which is related to liver function, not the hematologic system.
Which of the following is a cause of secondary neutropaenia in adults?
- A. Congenital
- B. Anti-hypertensive drugs
- C. Part of general pancytopaenia
- D. Familial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Part of general pancytopenia. Secondary neutropenia in adults can occur as part of general pancytopenia, where there is a decrease in all blood cell types. This can be caused by various conditions such as infections, medications, autoimmune disorders, and bone marrow disorders.
Rationale:
A: Congenital is incorrect because congenital neutropenia refers to a condition present at birth, not secondary neutropenia.
B: Anti-hypertensive drugs may cause drug-induced neutropenia, but it is not the primary cause of secondary neutropenia in adults.
D: Familial neutropenia is a genetic disorder that runs in families and is not a common cause of secondary neutropenia in adults.
Presence of an --jaundice --splenomegaly with increase MCH is seen in:
- A. liver cirrhosis
- B. th.major
- C. PNH
- D. herditary spherocytosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, hereditary spherocytosis. In this condition, the presence of jaundice and splenomegaly is due to the destruction of red blood cells by the spleen, leading to increased MCH. In liver cirrhosis (choice A), jaundice is due to impaired liver function. Thalassemia major (choice B) presents with severe anemia, not jaundice. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (choice C) is characterized by hemolytic anemia and not typically associated with splenomegaly and jaundice. Therefore, the presence of jaundice, splenomegaly, and increased MCH points towards hereditary spherocytosis.
A patient with pancytopenia has a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest. Which action would be important for the nurse to take after the procedure?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- B. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site.
- C. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.
- D. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Having the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour after a bone marrow aspiration helps to prevent bleeding by applying pressure to the site. This position helps to promote clotting and reduces the risk of hematoma formation. Elevating the head of the bed (choice A) is not necessary for this procedure. Applying a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing (choice B) is important but does not address the immediate post-procedure care. Using a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound (choice C) is not recommended as it may disrupt the clotting process.
A 3-month-old female presents to the emergency room with vomiting and abdominal distension. She has a left-side abdominal mass, and an abdominal ultrasound confirms an 8-cm mass arising from the left kidney. Liver lesions are also noted. Nephrectomy is performed and reveals a histologic diagnosis of malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK). Which of the following is not a true statement about the management of this patient?
- A. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present in infancy.
- B. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present with metastatic (stage III or IV) disease.
- C. She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.
- D. Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation on chromosome 22 is recommended, with brain MRI every 3 months until she is 5 years old, if testing is germline positive for SMARCB1/INI1.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.
Rationale:
1. Malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK) is an aggressive cancer with poor prognosis.
2. Even with aggressive treatment, including surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation, the prognosis is generally poor due to high rates of recurrence and metastasis.
3. Therefore, stating that the patient has an excellent prognosis with the mentioned treatments is not true.
Summary of other choices:
A: Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present in infancy - True, MRTK commonly presents in infancy.
B: Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present with metastatic (stage III or IV) disease - True, MRTK often presents with metastatic disease.
D: Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation on chromosome 22 is recommended, with brain MRI every 3 months until she is