ATI Hematologic System

ATI Hematologic System Related

Review ATI Hematologic System related questions and content

A 3-month-old female presents to the emergency room with vomiting and abdominal distension. She has a left-side abdominal mass, and an abdominal ultrasound confirms an 8-cm mass arising from the left kidney. Liver lesions are also noted. Nephrectomy is performed and reveals a histologic diagnosis of malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK). Which of the following is not a true statement about the management of this patient?

  • A. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present in infancy.
  • B. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present with metastatic (stage III or IV) disease.
  • C. She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.
  • D. Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation on chromosome 22 is recommended, with brain MRI every 3 months until she is 5 years old, if testing is germline positive for SMARCB1/INI1.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.
Rationale:
1. Malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK) is an aggressive cancer with poor prognosis.
2. Even with aggressive treatment, including surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation, the prognosis is generally poor due to high rates of recurrence and metastasis.
3. Therefore, stating that the patient has an excellent prognosis with the mentioned treatments is not true.

Summary of other choices:
A: Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present in infancy - True, MRTK commonly presents in infancy.
B: Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present with metastatic (stage III or IV) disease - True, MRTK often presents with metastatic disease.
D: Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation on chromosome 22 is recommended, with brain MRI every 3 months until she is

You may also like to solve these questions

Which of the following statements about myeloablative, myeloablative but reduced toxicity, reduced intensity, and non-myeloablative approaches is not correct?

  • A. Myeloablative approaches are needed for high-risk malignancies to maximize depth of remission and decrease the likelihood of relapse.
  • B. Reduced intensity regimens can be successfully used for most nonmalignant disorders to minimize risk of late effects.
  • C. Reduced intensity regimens can markedly decrease the risk of transplant-related mortality in patients who have underlying significant comorbidities but at the cost of more relapse and possibly more graft-versus-host disease.
  • D. Non-myeloablative regimens are used for the very highest risk patients to minimize toxicity and for certain diseases such as aplastic anemia.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reduced intensity regimens are used to minimize toxicity and late effects, not for most nonmalignant disorders. Myeloablative approaches are needed for high-risk malignancies to maximize remission depth (A), reduced intensity regimens can increase transplant-related mortality in high-risk patients (C), and non-myeloablative regimens are used for the highest risk patients and certain diseases like aplastic anemia (D).

Macrocytosis is a characteristic of all except:

  • A. an. Of myxedema
  • B. methotrexate induced
  • C. chronic alcoholism induced liver dis.
  • D. SLE
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Macrocytosis refers to larger-than-normal red blood cells.
2. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is not typically associated with macrocytosis.
3. Anemia of myxedema, methotrexate-induced, and chronic alcoholism-induced liver disease can all lead to macrocytosis.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is D: SLE, as it is not commonly associated with macrocytosis.

A patient is presented with weakness of legs, arms, trunk, tingling and numbness that progressively worsens. Peripheral blood smear shows macrocytic anemia. Which of the following is not the factor causing this condition?

  • A. Chronic atrophic gastritis
  • B. Ileal resection
  • C. Tapeworm infestation
  • D. Alcoholism
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tapeworm infestation. The symptoms described are consistent with vitamin B12 deficiency, which can result in macrocytic anemia and neurological symptoms. Chronic atrophic gastritis and ileal resection can impair absorption of vitamin B12, leading to deficiency. Alcoholism can also lead to malnutrition and vitamin deficiencies. Tapeworm infestation, on the other hand, does not directly affect vitamin B12 absorption. Therefore, tapeworm infestation is not a factor causing the condition described.

A 4-year-old male child presents to the emergency department with his fourth invasive Staph infection. CBC consistently identifies moderate neutropenia. Sophisticated lab testing identifies lack of Toll-like receptor responses. The patient undergoes whole exome sequencing and is found to have pathogenic variants in IRAK4. What does 'IRAK4' stand for?

  • A. Interferon gamma receptor-associated kinase 4
  • B. Inducible RAS activating kinase 4
  • C. Interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 4
  • D. Immune response activating kinase 4
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Identify the function of IRAK4.
IRAK4 is involved in the signaling pathway of the immune system, particularly in response to interleukin-1 (IL-1) receptor activation.

Step 2: Break down the acronym IRAK4.
IRAK4 stands for Interleukin-1 Receptor-Associated Kinase 4.

Step 3: Link the information in the question to the correct answer.
Given that the patient has a lack of Toll-like receptor responses and pathogenic variants in IRAK4, it indicates a problem with the interleukin-1 signaling pathway, making choice C (Interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 4) the correct answer.

Summary:
A: Incorrect - Interferon gamma receptor-associated kinase does not match the function of IRAK4.
B: Incorrect - Inducible RAS activating kinase does not match the function of IRAK4.
C: Correct - Matches the function of IRAK4

A patient is presented with fever, vomiting, hypotension and facial edema after his business trip back from Africa. Viral hemorrhagic fever is suspected in this patient. Which of the following family does the suspected virus belong to?

  • A. Filovirus
  • B. Togavirus
  • C. Adenovirus
  • D. Bunyavirus
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Filovirus. Viral hemorrhagic fevers are caused by viruses within the Filovirus family, which includes Ebola and Marburg viruses. Symptoms such as fever, vomiting, hypotension, and facial edema are characteristic of these infections. Togavirus (choice B) does not typically cause hemorrhagic fevers. Adenovirus (choice C) and Bunyavirus (choice D) are not commonly associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers. Therefore, the suspected virus in this patient most likely belongs to the Filovirus family.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.